April 20, 2022

UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS: 2018/2019 EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF BUSINESS IN INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY BUSS 106: INTRODUCTION TO COST ACCOUNTING FULL TIME/PART TIME/DISTANCE LEARNING DATE: AUGUST, 2019 TIME: 2 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS: Answer ALL Questions. QUESTION ONE (20 MARKS) a) Distinguish between period costs and irrelevant costs. 2 Marks b) Jennifer has a weekly demand of 1600 units of product zed. the unit cost of product zed is sh. 55 while fixed costs per order is 440 sh. Jennifer is financed sat a cost of 20% per annum. Her business works for 50 weeks in a year. Required: i) Economic order quantity. 2 Marks ii) Number of orders in a year. 2 Marks iii) Time interval between orders. 2 Marks iv) Total holding costs. 2 Marks v) Total ordering costs. 2 Marks c) Discuss three main differences between financial accounting and cost accounting. 3 Marks d) Discuss three methods used in the reapportionment of overheads. 3 Marks e) Do you think service costing is any more relevant in the field of cost accounting? Discuss 2 Marks QUESTION TWO (15 MARKS) a) The following information relates to Nyanduma business limited. Budgeted data Annual sales units 2000 Annual production 1600 Opening stock 700 Closing stock ? Cost per unit Selling price per unit 70 sh. Material cost 20 Labour cost 15 Variable overheads 7 Fixed production overheads per annum 20000 shs Fixed administration costs 5000 shs Variable administration costs sh. 6 per unit produced Fixed selling costs 10,000 shs Variable selling cost sh 2 per unit Required i) Profit statement based on marginal costing. 7 Marks ii) Profit statement based absorption costing. 7 Marks b) Should marginal costing be more applicable than absorption costing? Explain. 1 Mark QUESTION THREE (20 MARKS) a) Explain three key factors considered when setting stock levels. 3 Marks b) Consider the following details for kcau limited Annual demand 12000 units Ordering cost per batch sh 200 Holding cost per unit per year 10% of purchase price Purchase cost 100 sh per unit Reorder quantity current 400 units Maximum lead time 3 weeks Minimum lead time 1 week Maximum demand per week 1200 Normal demand per week 1000 Minimum demand per week 600 Required: i) EOQ. 2 Marks ii) Reorder level. 3 Marks iii) Maximum stock level. 3 Marks iv) Minimum stock level. 3 Marks v) Number of orders in a year. 2 Marks vi) Total ordering costs. 2 Marks c) Show two uses of EOQ. 2 Marks QUESTION FOUR (15 MARKS) a) The following details are given of wakalala enterprises Additional information: i) Opening stock was 1200 units purchased at sh. 36 per unit ii) The business uses FIFO method to value stock Required: i) Stores ledger card. 10 Marks ii) Explain six main functions of stores department. 5 Marks

UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS: 2018/2019 EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF BUSINESS IN INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY BUSS 102: BUSINESS MANAGEMENT FULL TIME/PART TIME/DISTANCE LEARNING DATE: AUGUST, 2019 TIME: 2 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS: Answer Question One & ANY OTHER TWO questions. QUESTION ONE John Walshburg is the Director of Poligon University of North Africa. The African Campus of Poligon University (ACPU) is the African branch of the Poligon University of Zurich (PUZ) in Switzerland. PUZ is an international university with branches in other parts of the world. In Africa, ACPU is the main branch with facilitation offices in a few African countries. A few years ago, a local facilitation office (LFO) in a country in the South of Sahara, was opened. For the first three years, the facilitation office was successfully managed. The students came to join in good numbers and the office was a clear sign of success in executive education, specifically in business education. ACPU registered students to study for MBA (Masters in Business Administration ) and BBA(Bachelor of Business Administration). The type of education was the distance learning method. It was well managed and more students joined ACPU because of its flexibility in course and affordable fees structure. The agent in charge of the local facilitation office, is a well-educated individual, with a master’s degree. He has employed a capable young graduate who handles applications and all other inquiries between North Africa and the local facilitation office (LFO). Recently it was noticed that LFO is closed at the time when the students and potential students want to see the office administrator. They go to the office but find it locked. No information is left at the door to guide the anxious students. The agent does not come to LFO anymore, and the office manager does not know what to do about (i) the new applications and (ii) what to tell the anxious students about important matters which used to be handled by the local agent himself. Mr. Walshburg does not communicate with the local agent as much as he used to do in the past because the telephone in LFO is not working any more. The agent has left the office administrator without guidance and the complaining students literally shout at the helpless administrator without settling the actual problems. For example, it is common to hear new applicants complaining: “How long will it take you to process my application?” The usual answer from the administrator has been: “As soon as the agent comes to check them.” People from outside do not know what is the problem. a. Basing your argument on the facts given above, what would you consider as the main cause of problems? Identify the major problems (10 Marks) b. If you are a management consultant employed to advise ACPU, what action would you recommend for:- i. Mr John Walshsbury ii. The Local agent iii. The Office administrator (6 Marks) c. Highlight any five principles of bureaucratic organizations by Max Weber and relate to the ACPU (10 Marks) d. Outline the management function according to Henry Fayol that inappropriately done at ACPU (4 Marks) QUESTION TWO a. Explain how the ideas of scientific management thinkers contribute to the development of concepts and principles of modern work management in organizations (10 Marks) b. State and explain any five external environmental factors clearly indicating how they influence business performance (10 Marks) QUESTION THREE a. Explain ten major forces that have been responsible for the sweeping changes and re organizations that have been taking place in Kenyan firms in the recent past (12 Marks) b. Highlight any five advantages of a company over a partnership (8 Marks) QUESTION FOUR a. State and explain any four skills that a manager must possess for effective performance of his job (8 Marks) b. One of the functions of management is decision making. Describe various types of decisions taken by managers and explain the steps that should be followed to arrive at the right decisions. (12 Marks) QUESTION FIVE In the recent past, corporate governance debate has dominated the agenda for regulators. . a. Argue the case for good corporate governance for a firm and country (8 Marks) b. Explain any six factors that influence the quality of governance (12 Marks)

UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS: 2018/2019 EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF BUSINESS AND INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY BUSS101 INTRODUCTION TO MICRO ECONOMICS FULLTIME/PARTTIME/DISTANCE LEARNING DATE: AUGUST 2019 TIME: 2 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS: Answer Question One & ANY OTHER TWO questions. QUESTION ONE a) Outline any THREE characteristics of the indifference curves (6 Marks) b) The table below shows the demand and supply schedules for a product. Price (Sh. Per Kg.) Demand (Kg) Supply (Kg.) Required: Plot the demand and supply curves and determine the equilibrium price and quantity.(8 Marks) c) With the aid of a well labled diagram, explain the profit maximizing position of a monopoly in the short run .Does this position change in the long run? Explain (8 Marks) d) Distinguish between the following terms as applied as applied in economics: i) Scarcity and choice (2 Marks) ii) Law of variable proportions and law of demand (2 Marks) iii)Giffen good and inferior good (2 Marks) iv) Marginal revenue and marginal cost (2 Marks) (Total:30 Marks) QUESTION TWO a) Given that: Qy = 9 – 0.5P Qx = 8 + 0.5P Required: Identify which of the two functions is a demand and a supply function. (4 Marks) b) Explain the importance of the concept of elasticity of Demand Citing the Factors that influences elasticity of demand (10 Marks) c) Using a well labled diagram, explain the long run equilibrium position of a firm in a monopolistic market (6 Marks) (Total:20 Marks) QUESTION THREE (a) Using examples discuss the various factors of production? (6 Marks) (b) Given the demand function Qd= _4,000P+2000Y+0.08POP+1,800,000C+0.06A, determine the point price elasticity of demand at the point where, i)Price of product is sh,4,000 and Quantity demanded is 6,000,000 units (3 Marks) ii) price of product is sh.4,500 and quantity demanded is 4,000,000 units (3 marks) iii) Using the results in b(i) and (ii) above compute the Arc price Elasticity of demand (3 Marks) C) Highlight three types of market equilibrium (8 Marks) (Total:20 Marks) QUESTION FOUR (a) With the aid of a well labled diagram, explain the three stages of the law of variable proportions (8 Marks) (b) Given a firm’s demand function Q – 90 +2P = 0 and its average cost function AC = Q2 – 8Q + 57 + 2/Q, determine the level of output which maximizes profits (8 Marks) (c) Illustrate and clearly explain the nature of indifference curves for perfect substitutes and for Complementary goods (4 Marks) (Total:20 Marks) QUESTION FIVE (a) Outline any Four characteristics of an Oligopolistic market structure (4 Marks) (b) Write brief notes on the following terminologies as applied in economics i) Positive Economics (4 Marks) ii) Ordinal approach (4 Marks) iii) Returns to scale ( 4Marks) (c ) Discuss the importance of economics knowledge to any individual ( 4 Marks) (Total: 20 Marks)

UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS: 2019/2020 ORDINARY EXAMINATION FOR THE BACHELOR OF BUSINESS INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY BUSS 100: INTRODUCTION TO ACCOUNTING 1 FULLTIME/PARTITIME/DISTANCE LEARNING DATE: AUGUST 2019 TIME: 2 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS: Answer Question One and Any Two Questions QUESTION ONE (30 MARKS) a) A Three column cash book for a wine wholesaler is to be written up from the following details , balanced off and the relevant discount accounts in the general ledger shown. (20 Marks) March 2018 March 1 Balances brought forward: cash Sh6,200: bank Sh71,420 March 2 The following paid their account by cheque, in each case deducting 5 per cent cash discounts: G Slick Sh2,600; P fish Sh3,200; T Old Sh4,200. March 4 Paid rent by cheque Sh4, 300 March 6 F black lent us Sh50,000 paying by cheque March 8 We paid the following accounts by cheque in each case deducting a 5 per cent cash discount ;R white Sh7,200;G Green Sh9,600;L Flip Sh16,000. March 10 Paid motor expenses in cash Sh810 March 12 J Pie pays his account of Sh900, by cheque Sh880, deducting Sh20 cash discount March 15 Paid wages in cash Sh5,800 March 18 the following paid their accounts by cheque in each case deducting 5 per cent cash discount A pony Sh 5,400; B line & son Sh 7,000:T Owen Sh5,200. March 21 Cash withdrawn from the bank Sh4,000 for business use. March 24 Cash drawings sh 2,000 March 25 Paid W peat his account Sh1,600 by cash Sh1,550, having deducted Sh50cash discount March 29 Bought fixtures paying by cheque Sh7,200 March 31 received commission by cheque Sh1,200 b) Briefly discuss FIVE users of accounting information and their interest on the information. (10 Marks) QUESTION TWO (20 MARKS) Enter the asset, capital and liability accounts in the books of a General Antics shop and answer the following questions: March 1 Started in business with Sh800,000 in the bank March 2 bought goods on credit from the following person: l frank Sh5,500; G Byers Sh 29,000; P Lee Sh6,100 March 5 cash sales Sh51,000 March 6 Paid wages in cash Sh11,000 March 7 Sold goods on credit to :j snow Sh29,500; K park Sh 3,600 ;B Tyler Sh64,000 March 9 Bought goods on cash Sh120,000 March 10 Bought goods on credit from: G byres Sh 41,000 P.lee Sh124,000 March 12 Bought goods on cash Sh11,000 March 13 Sold goods on credit from K park Sh6000:B Tyler Sh20,500. March15 Bought shop fixtures on credit from shop ltd Sh74,000 March 17 Paid G Byers by cheque Sh 70,000 March 18 We returned goods to p Lee Sh8,300 March 21 Paid Shop Ltd a cheque for Sh74,000 March 24 B Tyler paid us his account by cheque Sh84,500 March 27 we returned goods to L Frank Sh1,800 March 30 G Prince Lent us Sh100,000 by cash March 31 Bought a van paying by cheque Sh625,000 Required i) Record the transactions in the books of General Antics shop for the of March 2018. (12 Marks) ii) Prepare a trial balance for the month of March 2018 in the books of General Antics shop (8 Marks) QUESTION THREE (20 MARKS) a) State the meaning and significance of the following accounting principles i) Going concern (3Marks) ii) Consistency (3Marks) iii) Accruals concept (3Marks) b) State four characteristics of good accounting information (4Marks) c) Distinguish between provision for depreciation and doubtful debts (2 Marks) d) State three advantages which would accrue to a firm that practice record keeping (5 Marks) QUESTION FOUR (20 MARKS) Ngamia One co. Ltd has been trading for some years as a distributor. The following list of balances has been extracted from his ledger as at 30 June 2018. The following additional information as at 30june 2018 is available a. Stock at the close of business was valued at Sh 177,500 b. Insurances have been prepaid by Sh 11,200 c. Heating and lighting is accrued by Sh13,600 d. Rates have been prepaid by Sh 54,350 e. The provision for doubtful debt is to be adjusted so that is 5% of trade debtor f. Depreciation policy on fixtures and fittings is to be provided at 10 % pa. On cost. Required: a) Prepare Sweet Orchards co. Ltd’s income statement for the year ended 30 June 2018 (10 Marks) b) Prepare Sweet Orchards co. Ltd’s statement of financial position as at 30 June 2018 (10 Marks) QUESTION FIVE (20 MARKS) a) Discuss FIVE accounting errors and how they can be corrected in the pursuit of ensuring accuracy in accounting information (10 Marks) b) Explain the following terms as used in accounting (10 Marks) i. Asset ii. Liability iii. Capital iv. Expense v. Income

UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS: 2018/2019 EXAMINATION FOR DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT BSD 1308: ASSEMBLY PROGRAMMING MODE: FULL TIME/PART TIME/DISTANCE LEARNING ORDINARY EXAMINATIONS DATE: AUGUST.2019 DURATION: 2 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS: Answer Question ONE and any other TWO questions QUESTION ONE [30 MARKS] a) Explain two advantages and two advantages of assembly language. 4 Marks b) Describe the following concepts as used in assembly language programming. i. Mnemonic ii. Opcode iii. Operands 3 Marks c) List and explain any THREE control/status registers. 3 Marks d) List and explain any TWO user-visible registers. 2 Marks e) Describe the following types of assembly languages. i. CISC Assembly language ii. RISC Assembly language 4 Marks f) Differentiate between one-pass and two-pass assemblers. 4 Marks g) Describe any THREE functions of an assembler. 6 Marks h) For each of the following assembly statements, state and explain the address modes used. i. MOV ECX,[EBX+EDI+20] ii. MOV EAX,406 4 Marks QUESTION TWO [20 MARKS] a) State and explain THREE keywords used in assembly language 3 Marks b) Differentiate between numeric and symbolic labels in assembly language. 4 Marks c) Differentiate between integer constants and integer expressions in assembly language. 2 Marks d) Briefly explain the format of an assembly language program. 5 Marks e) Brief state and explain any THREE assembly language directives 6 Marks QUESTION THREE [20 MARKS] a) Write a simple assembly language program to add two binary numbers 1010b and 1100b. 6 Marks b) Write a simple assembly language program to multiply two real numbers 3.72 and 1.78 and display the answer in four decimal places. 8 Marks c) Briefly describe the following arithmetic instructions: i. SUBB ii. IDV iii. IMUL 6 Marks QUESTION FOUR [20 MARKS] a) Write an assembly language program to add FFFFh and 0001h and store the sum in an accumulator. 8 Marks b) Describe any three types of jumps in assembly programming. 3 Marks c) Write code snippets in assembly language for each of the following cases. i. Compare unsigned EAX to EBX, and copy the larger of the two into a variable named Large ii. Jump to label L1 if the memory word pointed to by ESI equals Zero iii. Jump to label L2 if the double word in memory pointed to by EDI is even 9 Marks QUESTION FIVE [20 MARKS] a) State and explain the bitwise operator suitable for turning off a particular bit in a number. 2 Marks b) Write an assembly language program to find the smallest number in an array. 6 Marks c) Write a procedure named multiply that computes the product of two signed 32-bit operands. The operands will be passed in registers ESI and EDI. The procedure should return the result on EAX. 6 Marks d) Write Assembly Language code to evaluate expression: ((a+b)-(c+d))-e. Assume a,b,c,d and e are integer variables. Hint: Use procedure. 6 Marks

UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS: 2019/2020 ORDINARY EXAMINATION FOR THE BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN SOFTWARE DEVELOMENT BSD 1104: OPERATING SYSTEMS DATE: AUGUST, 2019 TIME: 2 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS: Answer Question ONE and any other TWO Question 1 a) Explain two basic purposes of Operating System. (4 marks) b) Define batch systems. (2 marks) c) Explain thrashing and its cause. (3 marks) d) Define the virtual memory? What are its advantages? (5 marks) e) Explain demand paging and its use (4 marks) f) List the advantages of Contiguous allocation (3 marks) g) Differentiate between Logical and physical address (3 marks) h) Differentiate between Segmentation and paging storage (3 marks) i) Explain three activities that an Operating System does to file management (3 marks) Question 2 a) Explain the common strategies to select a free hole from a set of available holes (6 marks) b) Explain the methods used to prevent deadlocks (8 marks) c) Explain three stages of scheduling (6 marks) Question 3 a) Explain the requirements that a solution to the critical section problem must satisfy (6 marks) b) Give the condition necessary for a deadlock situation to arise? (4 marks) c) Explain the different accessing methods of a file (6 marks) d) Distinguish external fragmentation from internal fragmentation. (4 marks) Question 4 a) Briefly explain process lifecycle. (10 marks) b) Explain why an Operating System would terminate a process. (6 marks) c) Distinguish between hard real-time system and soft real-time system (4 marks) Question 5 a) Define process synchronization (2 marks) b) Explain four types of CPU scheduling. (8 marks) c) Write short notes on the following: (10 marks) i. Cooperating process ii. Independent process iii. Race condition iv. Critical section v. Semaphore

UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS: 2018/2019 EXAMINATION FOR DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT BSD 3206: ADVANCED SOFTWARE ENGINEERING MODE: FULL TIME/PART TIME/DISTANCE LEARNING ORDINARY EXAMINATIONS DATE: AUGUST, 2019 DURATION: 2 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS: Answer Question ONE and any other TWO questions QUESTION ONE a) Develop an object model including a class hierarchy diagram and an aggregation diagram showing the principal components of a PC and its system software. (20 Marks) b) Discuss ambiguities or omissions in the following statement of requirements for part of a ticket issuing system. An automated ticket issuing system sells rail tickets. Users select their destinations, and input a credit card and a PIN. The rail ticket is issued and their credit card account charged with its cost. When the user presses the start button, a menu display of potential destinations is activated along with a message to the user to select a destination. Once a destination has been selected, users are requested to input their credit card. Its validity is checked and the user is requested to input a PIN. When the credit transaction has been validated, the ticket is issued. (10 Marks) QUESTION TWO a) What are the four important attributes which all software products should have? Suggest four other attributes of software that you think are important for software engineering. (10 Marks) b) Using an example, explain the difficulties of describing what software reliability means. (10 Marks) QUESTION THREE a) What are the stages involved in the review of a software design? (10 Marks) b) Discuss advantages of Software configuration control support during software maintenance. (10 Marks) QUESTION FOUR a) Explain how both the waterfall model and prototyping model of the software process can be accommodated in the spiral model. (10 Marks) b) Why are evolutionary models considered by many to be the best approach to software development in a modern context? (10 Marks) QUESTION FIVE a) Discuss the differences and similarities between software configuration management during development and maintenance. (10 Marks) b) Objective of validation and verifications? And what are the kinds of testing which meet the objectives of V & V? (10 Marks)

UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS: 2018/2019 EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY BIT 4405: EXPERT SYSTEMS FULL TIME/PART TIME/DISTANCE LEARNING DATE: AUGUST, 2019 TIME: 2 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS: Answer Question One & ANY OTHER TWO questions. QUESTION ONE a) What is an Expert System? 2 Marks b) Advantages of Expert Systems over Human Experts 6 Marks c) Define an Inference Engine used as part of an Expert System 4 Marks d) Examine the contents of the Knowledge Base 4 Marks e) Using examples differentiate between Forward and Backward Chaining 6 Marks f) How can Linguists help in the development of Expert Systems? 4 Marks. g) Explain the following concepts 4 Marks i) The Turing Test ii) Artificial Intelligence iii) LISP iv) Speech Recognition Software QUESTION TWO a) Describe the main parts of an expert system. Show how they interact with one another 6 Marks b) Using two brief examples of knowledge representation, explain how knowledge may be represented in the knowledge base 6 Marks c) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of an expert system 4 Marks d) Why is MYCIN considered important in the development of expert systems and how did it lead to EMYCIN? 4 Marks QUESTION THREE a) What is the main purpose of Expert Systems? 4 Marks b) What is the main difference between conventional computer programs and production systems (rule based systems)? 5 Marks c) Why is a production system model was used to implement the first rule based expert systems? 5 Marks d) What types of knowledge are used by neural networks and by rule based systems? What kinds of systems are they with respect to the type of knowledge they use? 6 Marks QUESTION FOUR a) Describe the phases of designing an expert system? What term is used to call the whole process? 6 Marks b) What are the main areas of application of expert systems? 8 Marks c) Why is knowledge acquisition often referred to as the ES `bottleneck’? 6 Marks QUESTION FIVE a) Why do many people say they will not trust a `robo-doc’ medical diagnosis expert system? 8 Marks b) Describe at least 3 advantages that expert systems offer organisations that would otherwise have to employ human experts. 8 Marks c) Examine any two artificial intelligence techniques used in expert systems 4 Marks

UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS: 2018/2019 EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY BIT 4303: ADVANCED WEB DESIGN & DEVELOPMENT FULL TIME/PART TIME/DISTANCE LEARNING DATE: AUGUST, 2019 TIME: 2 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS: Answer Question One & ANY OTHER TWO questions. QUESTION ONE (COMPULSORY 30 MARKS) (a) Style sheet were designed to solve a problem. Explain 4 Marks (b) Describe the different ways of adding Styles to a html page 9 Marks (c) Describe the use of the statement Document.Write in Java script? 3 Marks (c) Describe the various parts of a style rule using an example to illustrate? 4 Marks d) Describe the three kinds of arrays in php, use code examples to explain their use 5 Marks e) Differentiate between the class and the ID as used with style sheets. 5 Marks (f) Explain how you get information from a form that is submitted using the “get” method? 3 Marks QUESTION TWO (20 MARKS) a) Write is the correct syntax for creating a function that can be used to calculate the area of a circle in PHP. 6 Marks b) Write a php program that can be used to call the function above 8 Marks c) Describe the use of throw try and catch in java script using an example to illustrate 6 Marks QUESTION THREE (20 MARKS) a) Write is the correct CSS syntax for creating a class that makes all <p> elements bold and italics? 6 Marks b) Differentiate between server side and client side scripting using examples to illustrate 8 Marks c) Write the correct syntax for referring to an external script called “xxx.js”? 6 Marks QUESTION FOUR (20 MARKS) a) How do you write “Hello World” in an alert box? 5 Marks b) Describe how you call a function named “myFunction”? 3 Marks c) Describe the three pop up boxes in Java script 6 Marks d) Define Event Handlers as used in JavaScript 2 Marks c) List the functions of any four form input types. 4 Marks QUESTION FIVE (20 MARKS) a) Using relevant examples describe the use of the for.. each loop in php 6 Marks (a) Describe the purpose of each of the following statements in the code above (i) mysql_connect() function (ii) mysql_select_db() (iii) mysql_query() (iv) mysql_result() 8 Marks c) Which event occurs when the user clicks on an HTML element? 4 Marks (d) Define a class in CSS 2 Marks

UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS: 2018/2019 EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY /BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN INFORMATION COMMUNICATIONS TECHNOLOGY / BACHELOR OF APPLIED COMPUTING BIT 4302: TELECOMMUNICATIONS FULL TIME/PART TIME/DISTANCE LEARNING DATE: AUGUST, 2019 TIME: 2 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS: Answer Question One & ANY OTHER TWO questions. QUESTION ONE [30 MARKS] a) Discuss the major differences and similarities between WLANs and wired Ethernet 6 Marks b) Define the following terminologies as used in telecommunications: (i) Half Duplex 1 Mark (ii) Full Duplex 1 Mark (iii) Connection-oriented network service 1 Mark (iv) Synchronous Transmission 1 Mark c) ITU is divided into three main sectors: ITU-R, ITU-T and ITU-D. Explain the role of each sector. 6 Marks d) Describe briefly the following VoIP components: (i) Call Agents 2Marks (ii) Gateways 2 Marks (iii) Gatekeepers 2 Marks e) With the aid of relevant diagrams represent the binary number 0101100101 using the following encoding schemes 8 Marks (i) Manchester encoding (ii) Differential Manchester encoding (iii) Bipolar AMI (iv) Frequency Shift Keying (FSK) QUESTION TWO [20 MARKS] a) Discuss briefly the following: (i) Fixed network delay 3 Marks (ii) Variable network delay 3 Marks b) Briefly describe the following types of noise in data communications: (i) Thermal noise 2 Marks (ii) Inter-modulation Noise 2 Marks c) Explain briefly the following key data communication concepts (i) Session 1 Mark (ii) Path 1 Mark (iii) Circuit 1 Mark (iv) Packetizing 1 Mark (v) Routing 1 Mark d) Explain why the telecommunications industry and its customers are shifting towards digital transmission. 5 Marks QUESTION THREE [20 MARKS] a) How can network administrators accelerate the packet dispatching for delay-sensitive flows? 6 Marks b) Wireless LANs can accommodate various network topologies. The standard defines a BSS as a group of stations that communicate with each other. In this regard, discuss briefly the following 802.11 toplogies: (i) Ad hoc networks. 2 Marks (ii) Basic Service Set (BSS) 2 Marks (iii) Extended Service Set (ESS) 2 Marks c) PCM (Pulse Code Modulation) is the process in which a signal is sampled, and the magnitude of the each sample with respect to a fixed reference is quantized and converted by coding to a digital signal. (i) Define sampling, quantization and encoding. 6 Marks (ii) State Nyquist Sampling Theorem 1 Mark (iii) Voice has frequency ranging from (approximately) 0 to 5000 Hz. To reconstruct the signal when digitized, at what rate should samples be taken? 1 Mark QUESTION FOUR [20 MARKS] a) The switching network could be packet switched or circuit switched. Briefly highlight the features of each type of switching network. 6 Marks b) Explain the FDMA, TDMA and CDMA multiple access techniques that are used in wireless communications and outline two principal weaknesses of FDMA and TDMA. 9 Marks c) Define the following terminologies in relation to satellite communications: (i) Earth Stations 1 Mark (ii) Uplink 1 Mark (iii) Downlink 1 Mark (iv) Transponder 1 Mark (v) Elevation angle 1 Mark QUESTION FIVE [20 MARKS] a) In the GSM900 technology: (i) How many pairs of simplex channels exist? 1 Mark (ii) How many users can be supported per channel? 1 Mark (iii) What is the MU and BS transmission band? 2 Marks (iv) If a station has a downlink frequency of 936.4MHz, what is its corresponding uplink frequency? 1 Mark (v) What is the role of the Network Subsystem (NSS)? 2 Marks (v) What is the role of the Base Station Subsystem? 2 Marks b) A channel has a spectrum between 6 MHz and 8 MHz; SNRdB =20 dB. (i) Calculate the channel capacity. 5 Marks (ii) How many signal levels are required? 2 Marks c) Show that 100-MHz waves are about 3 meters long and 0.1 meter waves have a frequency of 3000 MHz. Derive the appropriate rule of thumb. 4 Marks

UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS: 2018/2019 EXAMINATION FOR BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY/ BUSINESS INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY/ APPLIED COMPUTING BIT 3209: MOBILE PROGRAMMING FULLTIME/PARTIME/DISTANCE LEARNING DATE: AUGUST, 2019 TIME: 2 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS: Answer Question One and Any Other Two Questions QUESTION ONE (a). Briefly explain the meaning of the following terms in the context mobile programming. Write a simple XML code for defining each term (6 Marks) i. XML name space ii. XML element iii. XML attributes (b) State and explain three types of XML tags. Write a sample XML code for defining each tag (6 Marks) (c) Describe four factors that needs to be considered before developing a mobile application (4 Marks) (d) State and explain three types of Native mobile applications (3 Marks) (e) The following figure shows a mobile user interface with one text field for writing a message and a button for sending a message. i. Write an XML code that displays the user interface illustrated in the above figure (4 Marks) ii. Write java code that defines an event handler that prints a Toast message “Login successful” when the user press the Button (2 Marks) (e) Describe the meaning of the term “Broadcast receiver” in the context of mobile programming (2 Marks) (f) Define what is “intent” as used in android applications development. Write a sample java code for creating and sending intent object (3 Marks) QUESTION TWO (a) Explain the meaning of the following java code. (5 Marks) (b) Briefly describe the term A Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) as used in mobile programming (1 Mark) (c) Describe any two characteristics of mobile web applications (2 Marks) (d) Describe the meaning of the term “Activity stack” as used in android applications. Draw a diagram to illustrate your answer (3 Marks) (e) State and explain two methods for designing user interface of a mobile application (4 Marks) (f). Write an XML that displays the following output when executed in an emulator or real device (5 Marks) QUESTION THREE (a) Write an XML code that implements the user interface in the following figure (5 Marks) (b) Describe any four components of an android application (4 Marks) (c) Briefly explain two reasons why Android platform is preferred by developers when developing mobile applications (2 Marks) (d). Describe three types of mobile applications (3 Marks) (e) Describe the importance of integrated development Environment (IDEs) in mobile programming (2 Marks) (f) State and explain two categories of integrated development Environment (IDEs) as used in mobile programming (4 Marks) QUESTION FOUR (a). Write an XML that displays the following output when executed in an emulator or real device (5 Marks) (b) Briefly explain the meaning of the following terms as used in mobile programming. Write a sample XML code that demonstrates implementation each term i) Edit Text (4 Marks) ii) Relative layout (4 Marks) (c) Describe the functions linear layout in the context user interface of a mobile application. (2 Marks) (d) Write XML code that demonstrates the implementation of the following hierarchical structure of mobile user interface (5 Marks) QUESTION FIVE (a) Describe the meaning of the following terms as used in mobile programming. Give one example for each case (i) Data Adapter (3 Marks) (ii) Adapter view (3 Marks) (iii) View Group (3 Marks) (b) Describe the meaning of the statement ‘ life cycle of an activity’ and explain five states that an activity goes through during a life cycle. Draw a well labelled diagram that illustrates the lifecycle. (11 Marks) Relative Layout Name TextView Name Edit Text

UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS: 2018/2019 EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY/ BACHELOR OF BUSINESS INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY BIT 3202 A/BBIT 304: DISTRIBUTED DATABASES/ADVANCED DATABASE SYSTEMS FULL TIME/PART TIME/DISTANCE LEARNING DATE: AUGUST, 2019 TIME: 2 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS: Answer Question One & ANY OTHER TWO questions. QUESTION ONE a) Explain the following forms of distributed tables 5Marks i) Nonreplicated, nonfragmented (nonpartitioned) ii) Fully replicated (all tables) iii) Fragmented (also known as partitioned) iv) Partially replicated (some tables or some fragments) v) Mixed (any combination of the above) b) Discuss the objectives of distribution design in databases 6 Marks i) Fragmentation ii) Replication iii) allocation c) Describe rules to be followed when fragmenting a database 6Marks d) describe the process of query processing and optimization 4 Marks e) Discuss three aspects of distribution transparency in DDBMS 9 Marks QUESTION TWO a) Discuss four basic types of semantic integrity constraints 8 Marks b) What are the challenges faced in distributed semantic integrity control 4 Marks c) Discuss properties of transactions that ensure the database remains correct and consistent 6Marks d) Explain using an appropriate example the term transaction 2Marks QUESTION THREE a) Discuss the anomalies that are managed by the DDBMS scheduler in controlling concurrency 7Marks b) Discuss the following locking principles in relational DBMSs i) Lock Conversion 2 Marks ii) Lock Upgrade 2 Marks iii) Lock Escalation 2 Marks iv) Multiple-Granularity Locking (MGL) 2 Marks v) Intention Locking 2 Marks c) In optimistic concurrency control, a transaction’s life cycle is divided into three phases, discuss these phases 3Marks QUESTION FOUR a) Discuss the following objectives that must be considered in developing a distributed database i) Locality of reference 2 Marks ii) Improved availability and reliability of distributed data 2 Marks iii) Workload distribution and improved performance 2 Marks iv) Balanced storage capacities and costs 2 Marks v) Minimal communication costs 2 Marks b) A Distributed DBMS controls the storage and efficient retrieval of logically interrelated data that are physically distributed among several sites. Discuss the components of a distributed DBMS. 10Marks QUESTION FIVE a) Discuss the two types of locks in databases 3 Marks b) Discuss the following Two-Phase Locking in Distributed Systems 9 Marks i) Centralized 2PL Centralized 2P ii) Primary Copy 2PL iii) Distributed 2PL c) Explain the benefits provided by distributed databases 8 Marks