June 2022 – KNEC STUDY MATERIALS, REVISION KITS AND PAST PAPERS

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Certified Accounting and Management Skills May 2021 Past Papers

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PRINCIPLES OF MARKETING AND COMMUNICATION DECEMBER 2021 PAST PAPER

THURSDAY: 16 December 2021. Time Allowed: 3 hours.

This paper has three sections. SECTION I has forty (40) multiple choice questions. SECTION II has twenty (20) short response questions. SECTION III has one (1) essay question. All questions are compulsory. Marks allocated to each question are shown at the end of the question.

SECTION I – 40 MARKS

Which of the following is a cause of biased listening?

(a) Prejudices.

(b) Semantic problems.

(d) Noise. ( 1 mark)

The last stage of communication cycle is

(a) Decoding.

(b) Reception.

(d) Encoding. ( I mark)

Which of the following BEST describes the role of a marketing department?

(a) Creating marketing jobs.

(b) Developing a market for products.

(d) Contributing to market efficiency. ( I mark)

Which of the following are examples of convenience goods?

(a) Clothes and television.

(b) Headphones and bread.

(d) Sodas and bricks. ( I mark)

Lateral flow of communication occurs between

(a) Managers and customers.

(b) Employees in the same department.

(d) Employees and managers. (1 mark)

Which of the following is a purpose of a notice of a meeting?

(a) To bring a meeting to order.

(b) To help the chair control the meeting.

(d) To inform what is to be resolved. (1 mark)

Which of the following is a variable of demographic segmentation?

(a) Lifestyle.

(b) Personality.

(d) Sex. ( I mark)

Which of the following statement is NOT true about customer feedback?

(a) Helps to create the best customer experience.

(b) Provides reliable source of information.

(d) Helps to improve customer retention. (1 mark)

Which of the following is a reduction in price on purchase during a stated period?

(a) Sale.

(b) Discount.

(d) Offer. (1 mark)

Which of the following is a basic purpose of promotion?

(a) To increase customer perceptions.

(b) To increase customer preferences.

(d) To create product differentiation. (1 mark)

I 1. Which of the following is a major skill required in customer service?

(a) Transparency.

(b) Problem solving.

(d) Proactive. (1 mark)

Which of the following statements about listening is correct?

(a) Hearing and listening are synonymous.

(b) Listening is a mental activity.

(d) Listening is a physical act. (1 mark)

Which of the following is a purpose of a marketing plan?

(a) To provide the framework on which to build new relationships.

(b) To guide on structuring and allocation of resources.

(d) To reduce risks in an organisation. (1 mark)

Which is the MOST important task of an interviewer?

(a) Listen carefully.

(b) Formulate effective questions.

(d) Take notes. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a reason for maintaining customer databases?

(a) Identify the most loyal customers.

(b) Sending gifts and discounts to loyal customers.

(d) Sharing information about new products and special offers to loyal customers. ( I mark)

Which of the following is NOT a principle of effective communication?

(a) Completeness.

(b) Brevity.

(d) Wordy. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a price adjustment strategy?

(a) Segmented pricing.

(b) Promotional pricing.

(d) Free samples. (I mark)

A label performs several functions for a product EXCEPT

(a) Grading.

(b) Classifying.

(d) Promoting. (1 mark)

The first stage in analysing customer value is to

(a) Identify customers value attributes.

(b) Assess attributes importance.

(d) Assess competitors performance. (1 mark)

Which statement below BEST explains when to use written means of communication?

(a) As a legal requirement.

(b) Message is brief.

(d) No need for an immediate response. (1 mark)

Which of the following visual aid could BEST reinforce speech presentation?

(a) Illustrations.

(b) Flipchart.

(d) Billboard. (1 mark)

Elements of fear in the mind of a person leads to in communication.

(a) Closed mind.

(b) Lack of proper feedback.

(d) Delayed response. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a cause of failure of a new product?

(a) An underestimated market size.

(b) An incorrectly positioned product.

(d) A poorly designed product. (1 mark)

The term marketing mix describes

(a) Analysis of the 4Ps.

(b) A series of business decisions that help in selling.

(d) A blending of strategic elements to satisfy specific target markets. (1 mark)

The following are strategies for developing an effective presentation EXCEPT

(a) Determining the appropriate media.

(b) Tailoring the presentation to audience.

(d) Choosing appropriate visual aids. (1 mark)

Which of the following sentences BEST states the technique of capturing audience attention?

(a) A statement made to surprise.

(b) Asking rhetoric questions.

(d) Looking direct to the screen. (1 mark)

Which is the MAIN barrier to listening?

(a) Physiological barrier.

(b) Physical barrier.

(d) Cultural barrier. (1 mark)

Good customer service involves

(a) Listening and showing care to customers.

(b) Giving the customers what they ask for.

(d) Refer the customer to your supervisor. (1 mark)

The following are patterns of communication EXCEPT

(a) Diagonal.

(b) Non-verbal.

(d) External. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following is the MOST effective form of communication when a permanent record is needed?

(a) Verbal.

(b) Non-verbal.

(d) Written. (1 mark)

A memorandum is considered a brief form of written communication for

(a) Internal use.

(b) External use.

(d) Legal use. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT an element of effective complaints management?

(a) Attractiveness.

(b) Customer service.

(d) Accessible. (1 mark)

could create a strong customer relationship.

(a) Quality product.

(b) Price of the product.

(d) Product promotion. (1 mark)

Marketing information collected from online databases is classified under

(a) Primary sources.

(b) Secondary sources.

(d) Technological sources. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following instances BEST explains how rumors spread fast?

(a) The rumors seem incredible.

(b) Setting boundaries for informal communication.

(d) The recipients being emotionally anxious. (1 mark)

Which of the following is the first step of the marketing research?

(a) Implementing the research plan.

(b) Develop the research plan.

(d) Collecting the research data. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a form of downward communication?

(a) Performance appraisals.

(b) Notices.

(d) Policies. (1 mark)

is NOT a type of marketing concept.

(a) The production concept.

(b) The supplier concept.

(d) The selling concept. (1 mark)

Which of the following is an element of non-verbal communication?

(a) Rhythm.

(b) Pause.

(d) Language. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following statement BEST shows the importance of delivering quality customer service?

(a) Link customers and organisation.

(b) Encourage customers to ask questions.

(d) Maintain an organisation positive image. ( I mark)

SECTION II – 40 MARKS

You are advised not to exceed forty words in answering questions number 41 to 60.

A receptionist should answer an incoming call within (1 mark)

is a narrow market for a defined customer group seeking a product or service within a segment. (1 mark)

is a process of assigning distinct name to the product so as to differentiate it from others of similar nature. ( 1 mark)

The chain in which goods and services pass from producer to customer is known as ( 1 mark)

Gestures and slides are examples of communication. (1 mark)

A is used to give information which is uniform to many employees in an organisation. ( I mark)

Communication barriers related to languages are known as (1 mark)

A person whose duties include identification of the goods and services desired by customers is referred as ( 1 mark)

The set of actions or strategies that an organisation uses to promote its brand or product in the market is known as ( I mark)

and are key elements of external marketing environments. (2 marks)

List three roles of communication. (3 marks)

State three elements of a communication channel. (3 marks)

Enumerate four categories of consumer goods. (4 marks)

State three external factors that determine the price of a product. (3 marks)

List four methods of collecting primary data. (4 marks)

Outline three items that should be included in a notice of a meeting. (3 marks)

State three types of non-verbal cues. (3 marks)

Highlight two disadvantages of grapevine communication. (2 marks)

and are the two major types of meetings. (2 marks)

Enumerate two skills of interviewing. (2 marks)

SECTION III – 20 MARKS

Explain five reasons why organisations use social media to market products and services. (10 marks)

Summarise five disadvantages of virtual meetings. (10 marks)

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ELEMENTS OF TAXATION DECEMBER 2021 PAST PAPER

WEDNESDAY: 15 December 2021. Time Allowed: 3 hours.

This paper has two sections. SECTION I has twenty (20) short response/computational questions. SECTION II has three (3) computational questions. All questions are compulsory. Marks allocated to each question are shown at the end of the question. Any assumptions made must be clearly and concisely stated.

RATES OF TAX (Including wife’s employment, self-employment and professional income rates of tax). Year of income 2020.

Assume that the following rates of tax applied throughout the year of income 2020:

Monthly taxable pay Annual taxable pay Rate of tax

(Sh.) (Sh.) % in each Sh.

1 – 24,000 1 – 288,000 10%

24,001 – 40,667 288,001 – 488,000 15%

40,668 – 57,334 488,001 – 688,000 20%

Excess over – 57,334 Excess over – 688,000 25%

Personal relief Sh.2,400 per month (Sh.28,800 per annum).

SECTION I – 40 MARKS

Explain the meaning of “pay as you earn (PAYE)”. (2 marks)
State the tax position on value of meals provided by the employer. (2 marks)
Individual income tax returns should be filed on or before 30th June of the following year. Highlight the applicable penalty for late filing. (2 marks)
Identify the applicable advance tax rates for vans, pick-ups, trucks, prime movers and lorries. (2 marks)
Explain the term “residential rental income” as used in taxation. (2 marks)
In relation to Capital Gain Tax (CGT), indicate the applicable rate of tax and comment whether it is a final tax. (2 marks)
Explain the term “equality” as a principle of taxation. (2 marks)
Identify the term used when the producer transfers the tax burden to the final consumer. (2 marks)
Explain the term “stamp duty” as used in taxation. (2 marks)
Patrick Maloba works as an assistant accountant for Beta Ltd. He was provided with a saloon car of 2000cc by the company on 1 July 2020. The car had been purchased for Sh.1,800,000 in year 2019.

Required:

The taxable benefit (if any) during the year of income 2020 in relation to the saloon car provided by the employer. (2 marks)

James Mwatela an employee of Mamboleo Ltd. purchased a residential house through a mortgage loan advanced

by XYZ Bank. The monthly interest payable on the loan was Sh.42,000.

Required:

Advice James Mwatela, on the applicable monthly mortgage relief, in computation of his pay as you earn (PAYE). (2 marks)

Mercy Cherono’s rental income for the month of November 2021 was Sh.246,000.

Required:

Determine Mercy Cherono’s residential rental income tax payable, indicating the due date for tax payment.

(2 marks)

Indicate when and by what percentage should the taxpayers in the agricultural sector pay instalment tax. (2 marks)
Highlight the two applicable rates for value added tax (VAT) purposes. (2 marks)
Propose two conditions for a company to be considered as a resident in Kenya for tax purposes. (2 marks)
The accountant of Luckystar Ltd. listed the following expenses in relation to bad debt:

General provision for bad debts Sh.172,000
Bad debt written off Sh.84,000
Specific provision for bad debts Sh.93,000

Required:

Identify the bad debt expense listed above (if any) that should be allowed for tax purposes. (2 marks)

Apart from pay as you earn (PAYE), state two other statutory deductions. (2 marks)
Kenland Enterprises generates Sh.400,000 per month on average in sales revenue. Advise the management of Kenland Enterprises whether they are supposed to register for value added tax (VAT) purposes. (2 marks)
After a tax presentation, Justus Mwania did not understand clearly what is meant by withholding tax.

Required:

Explain to him the meaning of “withholding tax” (2 marks)

Erick Mwololo a dealer in electronic goods made a profit of Sh.3,240,600 in the year 2020. However, in the year 2019 he had made a loss of Sh.1,243,800 from the same business. Determine the taxable amount for the year (2 marks)

SECTION II

QUESTION 21

Citing four reasons, justify why accounting profit is different from taxable profit. (8 marks)

Deborah Sitati is employed by Talak Ltd. as a manager. She has provided the following information in relation to her employment income for the year ended 31 December 2020.

Basic salary of Sh.87,500 per month (PAYE 35,900) per month.
She was provided with a monthly commuter allowance of Sh.21,000.
She received leave allowance equivalent to one month’s basic pay.
She was provided with a saloon car of 2000cc. The car had been purchased at a cost of Sh.2,100,000.
The company paid Sh.157,500 for her husband’s medical bills. The company’s medical scheme covered all employees.
The company provided her with a fully furnished house. The cost of furniture was Sh.420,000.
She was provided with a security guard and a cook whom the company paid monthly salaries of Sh.15,750 and Sh.21,000 respectively.
She was given free goods worth Sh.60,000 by the company during the year.
She is a member of a registered pension scheme where she contributed Sh.49,000 per month towards the scheme.
The company paid Sh.315,000 for her son’s school fees. This amount was deducted as an expense in the books of Talak Ltd.
She worked for 5 days out of her duty station during the year for which she was paid Sh.8,750 per day. ‘

Required:

Taxable income for Deborah Sitati for the year ended 31 December 2020. (10 marks)

Taxable payable (if any) from the income computed in (b) (i) above. (2 marks)

(Total: 20 marks)

QUESTION 22

The following transactions were extracted from the books of Zadec Electronics Ltd, a value added tax (VAT) registered company for the month of October 2021.

1 October 2021: Purchased 8 phones at Sh.10,000 each.

4 October 2021: Purchased flash disks at Sh.25,000.

4 October 2021: Sold 4 cameras at Sh.15,0000 each.

5 October 2021: Purchased 10 television sets at Sh.20,000 each.

6 October 2021: Sold 2 projectors for a total of Sh.250,000.

8 October 2021: Purchased flash bulbs at Sh.120,000.

9 October 2021: Sold 2 television sets at Sh.30,000 each.

12 October 2021: Sold 10 phones on credit to Zawadi Enterprises at a total of Sh.175,000.

15 October 2021: Purchased 50 wrist watches at Sh.2,500 each.

18 October 2021: Exported 3 television sets to Uganda at Sh.40,000 each.

22 October 2021: Bought energy saving bulbs at Sh.140,000.

25 October 2021: Sold 6 flash disks at Sh.1,000 each.

28 October 2021: Paid electricity bills of Sh.4,500.

The above transactions are stated exclusive of VAT at the rate of 16%, where applicable.

Required:

The VAT payable by or refundable to Zadec Electronics Ltd. for the month of October 2021. (12 m

Excel Cement Manufacturing Ltd. commenced operations on 2 May 2020 after incurring the following expenditure:

Sh.

Factory building 84,000,000

Packaging machine 6,000,000

Crashing machine 12,000,000

Conveyor belts 18,400,000

3-Tractors (each at Sh.3,200,000) 9,600,000

8-Lorries (each at Sh.3,000,000) 24,000,000

3-Saloon cars (each at Sh.3,000,000) 9,000,000

2-Delivery vans (each at Sh.2,400,000) 4,800,000

Computers 600,000

Furniture 540,000

Additional information:

Factory building cost is inclusive of the cost of land amounting to Sh.30,000,000.
The following assets were disposed of on 31 October 2020:

Sh.

1-Tractor 2,800,000

2-Lorries (each at Sh.2,400,000) 4,800,000

Required:

Investment allowances due to the company for the year ended 31 December 2020. (8 marks)

(Total: 20 marks)

QUESTION 23

1. Explain the following types of tax assessment:

Default assessment. (2 marks)

Self assessment. (2 marks)

2. Outline four transactions that require personal identification number (PIN). (4 marks)

3. Haraka and Makali are partners trading as Hali Traders and sharing profits and losses equally. The statement of profit or loss for the partnership for the year ended 31December 2020 was as follows:

Additional information:

Insurance premiums expense included Sh.13,500 paid to insure Makali’s private car.
Interest on capital relates to the partners on their capital contribution with each partner receiving Sh.134,000.
Legal fees include Sh.42.000 paid for appeal on a tax assessment and Sh.27,800 paid as stamp duty.
Salaries and wages include Sh.124,000 and Sh.90,000 paid to Haraka and Makali respectively during the year.
General expenses include Sh.88.000 embezzled by the cashiers.
Investment allowances for the year were agreed with the tax authorities at Sh.236,000.

Required:

The adjusted partnership profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 2020. (10 marks)

Allocation of the profits or losses in (b) (i) above to the partners. (2 marks)

(Total: 20 marks)

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FOUNDATIONS OF ACCOUNTING DECEMBER 2021 PAST PAPER

WEDNESDAY: 15 December 2021. Time Allowed: 3 hours.

This paper has two sections. SECTION I has twenty (20) short response/computational questions. SECTION II has three computational questions. ALL questions are compulsory. Marks allocated to each question are shown at the end of the question. Any assumptions made must be clearly and concisely stated.

SECTION I – 40 MARKS

State the accounting equation. (2 marks)
Identify the accounting concept that assumes that an entity will continue in business in the foreseeable future. (2 marks)
Highlight two causes of depreciation of assets such as buildings, furniture and fittings. (2 marks)
Match the source document with the journal in which it is entered:

Source document Journal

Sales invoice Sales returns

Receipt Purchases

Credit note Sales

Goods received note Cash book.

(2 marks)

Explain the term “capital expenditure”. (2 marks)
Define “error of omission”. (2 marks)
A business has the following balances:

Sh.

Land 1,000,000

Machinery 200,000

Cash 10,000

Debentures 200,000

Required:

The value of the owner’s equity. (2 marks)

Outline two items that might be credited to the sales ledger control account. (2 marks)
List two qualities of useful accounting information. (2 marks)
Classify each of the following items as either an asset or a liability:

Accounts receivable.

Pre-paid rent.

Machinery.

Lighting accrued.

(2 marks)

The following balances were extracted from the books of Zed Ltd. on 30 September 2021:

Sh.

Accrued administrative expenses (1 October 2020) 972,800

Cash paid for administrative expenses during the year ended 30 September 2021 3,100,000

Accrued administrative expenses (30 September 2021) 704,600

Required:

Administrative expenses account. (2 marks)

Explain why the government might need accounting information. (2 marks)

State two classes of ledger accounts. (2 marks)

As at 1 July 2020, Julia had a rent pre-payment of Sh.600,000. She paid Sh.3,600,000 during the year ended 30 June 2021.

Required:

The rent charged to the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 30 June 2021. (2 marks)

The following information relates to BZ Enterprises for the month of November 2021:

Sh.

Adjusted bank balance 490,000

Uncredited cheques 75,000

Unpresented cheques 120,000

Required:

Bank reconciliation statement. (2 marks)

K K purchased a motor vehicle for Sh.1,500,000 by cheque.

Required:

Post the transaction in the relevant ledger accounts. (2 marks)

Identify the ledger in which the account of each of the following can be found:

Furniture. (1 mark)

Robert, a debtor. (1 mark)

The following balances were extracted from the books of Happy House Ltd. as at 30 September 2021:

Sh.

Motor vehicles 2,300,000

Inventory 150,000

Cash 220,000

Furniture 550,000

Required:

Total non-current assets. (1 mark)

Total current assets. (1 mark)

Highlight two contents of a partnership deed. (2 marks)

State the term used to describe the difference between cost price of an asset and net book value of the asset. (2 marks)

SECTION II

Thomas Haki’s trial balance as at 30 June 2021 is as follows:

Additional information:

Inventory as at 30 June 2021 was valued at Sh.27,475,000.

Required:

Statement of profit or loss for the year ended 30 June 2021. (12 marks)

Statement of financial position as at 30 June 2021. (8 marks)

(Total: 20 marks)

Leah Loa started a business on 1 September 2021 with Sh.2,000,000 that she deposited in a business bank account. She made the following transactions during the month of September 2021:

September 2021

2 Withdrew Sh.500,000 from the bank for business use.

4 Purchased goods on credit from Tom for Sh.600,000 and Jane for Sh.400,000.

6 Purchased furniture for Sh.180,000 paying by cheque.

7 Paid rent by cheque Sh.120,000.

9 Sold goods on credit as follows:

King Sh.250,000 and Paul Sh.190,000

12 Paid Tom his account by cheque.

16 Paid wages Sh.60,000 by cash.

22 King paid his account by cash.

25 Paid for painting of the shop Sh.25,000 in cash.

26 Sold goods in cash for Sh.150,000 and received the money. She used it for her personal needs.

Required:

Post the accounting entries in the appropriate ledger accounts and balance them as at 30 September 2021. (15 marks)

Trial balance as at 30 September 2021. (5 marks)

(Total: 20 marks)

Antony Muga is a small trader. The bank balance in the cash book and the balance as per the bank statement for Antony Muga for the month of March 2021 are as follows:

Required:

Adjusted cash book for March 2021. (10 marks)

Bank reconciliation statement as at 31 March 2021. (10 marks)

(Total: 20 marks)

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FUNDAMENTALS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS DECEMBER 2021 PAST PAPER

THURSDAY: 16 December 2021. Time Allowed: 3 hours.

This paper has three sections. SECTION I has forty (40) multiple choice questions. SECTION II has twenty (20) short response/computational questions. SECTION III has one (1) computational question. All questions are compulsory.

Marks allocated to each question are shown at the end of the question.

SECTION 1 – 40 MARKS

Which one of this is unaffected by outliers?

(a) Mean

(b) Mode

(d) Range (1 mark)

Since the mode is the most frequently occurring data value in the data distribution, it is:

(a) Always equal to the mean

(b) Larger than the mean

(d) Always smaller than the median (1 mark)

The value of x if 3, 18 and x, 42 are in proportion is:

(a) 6

(b) 54

(d) 3 (1 mark)

Which of the following is true about probability?

(a) The probability of an impossible event is 0

(b) Probability can be greater than one

(d) The probability of a sure event is 0 ( 1 mark)

The transpose of a row matrix is a:

(a) Diagonal matrix

(b) Zero matrix

(d) Identity matrix ( 1 mark)

Which of the following is an inverse of matrix A?

(a) A’

(b) A

(d) A (1 mark)

When we factorise an expression, we write it as a of factors.

(a) Sum

(b) Difference

(d) Fraction ( 1 mark)

8. Which of the following describes the number on top of a fraction?

(a) Number

(b) Denominator

(d) Factor

9. What type of a fraction is 9/7?

(a) Proper fraction

(b) Mixed number fraction

(d) Improper fraction

10. Which of the following fractions is equivalent to 2/5

(a) 4/8

(b) 5/2

(d) 3/15

11. The data below shows marks scored by interviewees in an interview:
54, 80, 65, 75, 96.

Which is the median mark?

(a) 65

(b) 80

(d) 75

12. Mulwa, Mulei and Kingi earned Sh.50,000 in a joint venture business. his share in Sh. was:

(a) 10,000

(b) 15,000

(d) 20,000

13. Which one of the following is not a frequency curve?

(a) Ogive

(b) Pictogram

(d) Polygon

14. If two events A and B are mutually exclusive, then

(a) They must be independent events

(b) They cannot be compliments

(d) They can happen together

15. Which one of the following is not a measure of central tendency?

(a) Variance

(b) Mode

(d) Median

Round off 0.36985 to three decimal places.

(a) 0.369

(b) 0.378

(d) 0.37 (1 mark)

Convert a markup of to a margin.

(a) 2/3

(b) 4/5

(d) 4/7

( 1 mark)

Matrix can be defined as:

(a) Identity matrix

(b) Scalar matrix

(d) Null matrix ( 1 mark)

Which of the following matrices has an inverse matrix?

A vendor bought an item for Sh.80 and later sold it at Sh.100. What was the profit margin as a percentage?

(a) 25%

(b) 20%

(d) 10% ( 1 mark)

There are 7 green apples and 5 red apples in a basket. What is the probability of picking a red apple?

(a) 5/7

(b) 5/12

(d) 7/12 (1 mark)

In a box, there are 8 red, 7 white and 6 blue balls. If a ball is picked up at random, what is the probability that it is neither red nor blue.

(a) 1/3

(b) 1/2

(d) 5/21

In a class there are 20 boys and 15 girls. The ratio of boys to girls is:

(a) 3:3

(b) 3:4

(d) None of the above. (1 mark)

The probability of two events happening together is referred to as:

(a) Conditional probability

(b) Joint probability

(d) Equivalent probability (1 mark)

You deposit Sh.2,500 today in an account that earns 4% per annum interest compounded quarterly. How much will you have at the end of 10 years’?

(a) Sh.1,488.90

(b) Sh.3,700.60

(d) Sh.3,722.20 (1 mark)

When 0.36 is written in simplest form, the sum of the numerator and denominator is:

(a) 12

(b) 23

(d) 45 (1 mark)

In a cumulative frequency polygon, frequencies are plotted on:

(a) Rectangles

(b) X-axis

(d) None of the above (1 mark)

Calculate the simple interest earned in 9 months if a sum of Sh.1,640 is invested in a bank at a rate of interest of 4.5% per annum:

(a) Sh.36.90

(b) Sh.55.35

(d) Sh.16.40 (1 mark)

Under the straight line method of providing depreciation, the cost of an item;

(a) Decreases every year

(b) Remains constant every year

(d) None of the above (1 mark)

The probability of getting two tails when two coins are tossed is:

(a) 1/6

(b) 1/2

(d) 1/4 (1 mark)

Depreciation occurs due to:

(a) Losses

(b) Wear and tear

(d) None of the above (1 mark)

In a class there are 20 boys and 15 girls. The ratio of boys to girls is:

(a) 3:3

(b) 3:4

(d) None of the above. (1 mark)

The probability of two events happening together is referred to as:

(a) Conditional probability

(b) Joint probability

(d) Equivalent probability ( 1 mark)

You deposit Sh.2,500 today in an account that earns 4% per annum interest compounded quarterly. How much will you have at the end of 10 years?

(a) Sh.1,488.90

(b) Sh.3,700.60

(d) Sh.3,722.20 (1 mark)

When 0.36 is written in simplest form, the sum of the numerator and denominator is:

(a) 12

(b) 23

(d) 45 (1 mark)

In a cumulative frequency polygon, frequencies are plotted on:

(a) Rectangles

(b) X-axis

(d) None of the above ( I mark)

Calculate the simple interest earned in 9 months if a sum of Sh.1,640 is invested in a bank at a rate of interest of 4.5% per annum:

(a) Sh.36.90

(b) Sh.55.35

(d) Sh.16.40 (1 mark)

Under the straight line method of providing depreciation, the cost of an item;

(a) Decreases every year

(b) Remains constant every year

(d) None of the above (1 mark)

The probability of getting two tails when two coins are tossed is:

(a) 1/6

(b) 1/2

(d) 1/4 ( 1 mark)

Depreciation occurs due to:

(a) Losses

(b) Wear and tear

(d) None of the above (I mark)

SECTION II – 40 MARKS

Differentiate the following function.

Y = -32.4 + x3 + x2+ x (2 marks)

The data below shows the time taken in minutes by ten athletes to complete a race:

60, 50, 52, 38, 58, 34, 52, 57, 44

State the mode of the distribution. (2 marks)

Three business partners, Abel, Anitta and Angela share their profit in the ratio of 4:5:1.

If Angela received sh.25,000, what was the total profit earned. (2 marks)

Evaluate

-1 (2+6) – 12 – 5 + 5

-2 x 4 + -3x-5 (2 marks)

The cost of a car in Japan is 25,000 Japanese Yen.

determine the cost of the car in Kenya shillings (Sh.) if 1 Japanese Yen = Kenya sh.127 (2 marks)

The number of female students in State college is 2,100. If the probability of selecting a female student at random from the college is – , calculate the number of male students in the college. (2 marks)

Grace bought a calculator at a cost of sh.600 and later sold it at sh.900

Calculate the profit markup on the sale of the calculator. (2 marks)

James bought a car at an initial cost of sh. 5,000,000. The car depreciates at the rate of 12% per annum on a straight line basis.

Required:

Find the net book value of the car after 4 years. (2 marks)

Convert 3/8 to a percentage. (2 marks)

50.Round off 23.386521 to three decimal places. (2 marks)

Given 50, 64, 25, 76, calculate the arithmetic mean. (2 marks)

Dave deposited sh.80,000 in a fixed deposit account. After four years, the amount in the account was Sh.144,000.

Calculate the simple rate of interest. (2 marks)

Use indices to find the value of x.

(2 marks)

Integrate 4×3 – 6×2 + 8x – 5 with respect to x. (2 marks)

Solve the following simultaneous equations.

6x + 2y = 102

4x + 3y = 98 (2 marks)

A manufacturer sold an item to a wholesaler at a 20% profit markup. The wholesaler sold the item to a retailer at Sh.3,600 at a 25% markup.

Calculate the cost of manufacturing the item. (2 marks)

Factorise; 12y2-20y + 3 (2 marks)

58. Expand; (x + 4) (x — 2) (2 marks)

The marked price of a business mathematics book is sh. 800. The seller offers a cash discount of 5%. Determine the price of the book after the discount. (2 marks)

Solve the following equation 2Y x 2y+2 = 16 (2 marks)

SECTION III – 20 MARKS

The table below shows the profit earned by Small and Medium Size Enterprises (SMSEs) in Kenya.

Profit Sh.`million’ Number of companies

10 – 20 10

20 – 30 8

30 – 40 5

40 – 50 22

50 – 60 15

60 – 70 12

70 – 80 8

Required:

The arithmetic mean profit. (5 marks)

The median profit. (5 marks)

The modal profit. (5 marks)

The standard deviation of the profit. (5 marks)

Posted on June 30, 2022 by Toto Aish — Leave a comment

FUNDAMENTAL ICT SKILLS DECEMBER 2021 PAST PAPER

Thursday: 16 December 2021

Time Allowed: 3 hours.

This paper has three sections. SECTION I has forty (40) multiple choice questions. SECTION II has twenty (20) short response questions. SECTION III has one (1) essay question. All questions are compulsory. Marks allocated to each question are shown at the end of the question.

SECTION I— 40 MARKS

Which one of the following devices functions only as an input device?

(a) Hard disk drive

(b) Computer memory

(d) Scanner ( 1 mark)

What was the technology used in the third generation computers?

(a) Integrated circuits

(b) Vacuum tube

(d) Very large scale integration ( 1 mark)

Which type of software that is best defined by the following; “Software which allows end users to perform and fulfil their tasks”?

(a) Operating system

(b) Application software

(d) Programming software (1 mark)

What is the name of a circuit board which connects most of the other devices on a computer?

(a) Processor

(b) Expansion slot

(d) Monitor ( 1 mark)

Which of the following is a primary feature of an operating system?

(a) Virus scanning

(b) File management

(d) Web browsing ( 1 mark)

A company needs to develop a computerised system to manage its sales. Who is the most appropriate person to study this company’s requirements?

(a) Programmer

(b) Web designer

(d) System administrator (1 mark)

In graphical user interface (GUI), what does the acronym WYSIWYG stand for?

(a) What You See Is What You Get

(b) Why you saw Is What You Got

(d) What You See Is What You Got ( 1 mark)

Consider the following devices:

X – Digital camera

Y – Speaker

Z – Hard disk (1 mark)

Which of the above is/are usually used as an output device/devices of a computer?

(a) X only

(b) Y only

(d) Y and Z only (1 mark)

In relation to e-mail, what does RE: or Re: in the subject box stand for?

(a) Receive

(b) Reference

(d) Remember (1 mark)

Which one of the following is NOT a symptom of internet addiction disorder?

(a) Improved access to distance learning and online tutorials

(b) Difficulty maintaining healthy relationships when not online

(d) Friends and family expressing concern for the amount of time you spend online (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Internet?

(a) Nobody owns the Internet

(b) There is no centralised control

(d) All the information available is accurate and reliable (1 mark)

Which of the following is considered as raw data?

(a) Marks obtained by students in a class

(b) Sorted list of marks obtained by students in a class

(d) Average marks obtained by students in a class (1 mark)

What is the function of the CTRL + Z keyboard shortcut?

(a) Undo

(b) Copy

(d) Cut (I mark)

Which of the following input devices recognises the position of marks on paper?

(a) MICR

(b) OCR

(d) OMR (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a network device?

(a) Hub

(b) Printer

(d) OMR (1 mark)

Which of the following is not a type of user interface?

(a) Command driven interface

(b) Menu driven interface

(d) Direct manipulation interface (1 mark)

The ability to combine names and addresses with a standard document is called

(a) Document formatting

(b) Database management

(d) Form letters (1 mark)

A spreadsheet function that displays only the data in column(s) according to specified criteria is called a

(a) Formula

(b) Sorter

(d) Pivot (1 mark)

What type of diagram would you use to compare performance of two employees in the year 2020?

(a) Column chart

(b) Line chart

(d) Dot chart (1 mark)

The feature of spreadsheet application quickly completes a series of data.

(a) Auto Complete

(b) Auto Fill

(d) Sorting (1 mark)

Which type of field will you select if you need to enter long text in that field?

(a) Text

(b) Memo

(d) Hyperlink (1 mark)

The columns in a database application table are also called

(a) Rows

(b) Records

(d) Columns (1 mark)

Which of the following factors is not used when determining the processing power of a computer?

(a) Clock speed

(b) RAM size

(d) Computer price (1 mark)

Which of the following data transmission modes is not valid?

(a) Simplex

(b) Double duplex

(d) Half duplex (1 mark)

Which transmission medium is most appropriate to carry data in a computer network that is exposed to electromagnetic interference?

(a) Unshielded twisted pair

(b) Coaxial cable

(d) Optical fibre (1 mark)

Which of the following is a valid email address?

(a) tunaweza@point.com

(b) gmail.com

(d) tunawezapoint@business ( 1 mark)

Which of the following types of software best represents the software designed to perform a specific task?

(a) Application software

(b) Synchronous software

(d) System software (1 mark)

Which network topology requires a central hub?

(a) Bus

(b) Star

(d) Ring (1 mark)

The process of linking of computers with a communication system is called

(a) Networking

(b) Pairing

(d) Assembling (1 mark)

Which of the following statements about asynchronous transmission is NOT correct?

(a) Each character is framed with a start bit and a stop bit

(b) Transmission medium is idle during time intervals between transmitting characters

(d) It is slow (1 mark)

WLAN stands for

(a) Wire Lost Area Network

(b) Wireless Local Ambiguity Network

(d) Wireless Local Area Network (1 mark)

Which of the following is an example of a system software?

(a) Microsoft Excel

(b) Microsoft Word

(d) Opera (1 mark)

Which of the following items are part of information technologies?

(i) Digital camera

(ii) Mobile phone

(iii) Internet

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)

(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) ( 1 mark)

What is the name of a network that uses a server to meet the needs of the other computers on the network?

(a) Local area network

(b) Client/server network

(d) Groupware network ( 1 mark)

Which of the following is used as a primary storage device?

(a) Hard disk

(b) Magnetic tape

(d) Floppy disk (1 mark)

Which of the following enables a computer to “boot”?

(a) Operating system

(b) Compiler

(d) Assembler (1 mark)

Information is a set of data that have been shaped into a form that is:

(a) Meaningless and useless to human being

(b) Meaningful and useful to human being

(d) Meaningful and useful to information systems (1 mark)

Which of the following best describes the Central Processing Unit?

(a) It is operated from the control panel.

(b) It controls all input, output and processing.

(d) It controls the auxiliary storage unit (1 mark)

Which of the following best describes the measure of the output quality of a printer?

(a) Dots per inch

(b) Dots printed per unit time

(d) Type of ink used (1 mark)

The difference between memory and storage is that memory is and storage is

(a) Permanent, temporary

(b) Slow, fast

(d) Cheap, expensive (1 mark)

SECTION II — 40 MARKS

In questions 41 to 45, indicate whether the statement is True or False.

Information Communication Technology refers to the technology that merges computing with high speed communication links carrying data, sound and video. (1 mark)

Second Generation Computers used integrated circuits for their internal operations. (1 mark)

Expansion Slot is an interface on a computer to which you connect a device. (1 mark)

Fiber-optic cable is a media of choice for backbone networks. (1 mark)

Shareware is any copyrighted software, application or program that may be freely downloaded, installed, used and shared. (1 mark)

You are advised not to exceed forty words in answering questions number 46 to 60.

Write the appropriate file extension against the following software:

Match each of the following network topologies with its main advantage outlined below the table:

Data can be transmitted from different devices simultaneously
Easy to implement
Point to point connection of devices
Equal access for all users
Centralised control (4 marks)

Identify the category of the following devices either as input, output or storage device.

State the type of software below either as operating system, utility or application.

Define the term “network firewall”. (2 marks)

51. …………..is working from home using telecommunication tools. (2 marks)

……………….is the practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the internet to store, manage and process data rather than local servers. (2 marks)

……………….refers to electronic movement of standard business documents between or within firms. (2 marks)

The use of human biological and behavioral characteristics to recognise authorised users of a system is known as (2 marks)

…………..is a network that uses public telecommunication infrastructure to connect private remote offices. (2 marks)

…………..is a document that has been output from a computer, some extra information added to it, and then returned to become an input document. (2 marks)

…………..is the most powerful computer in the world. (2 marks)

refers to raw facts awaiting processing. (2 marks)

State two functions used in spreadsheet application. (2 marks)

Outline two features of a word processing application. (2 marks)

SECTION III — 20 MARKS

Outline the steps followed to create a folder called KASNEBCAMICT on the desktop. (4 marks)

Outline the procedure of creating a word processing file called “KasnebExams” on the desktop. (4 marks)

Using four short sentences, demonstrate the following features of a word processor program; bold, double underline, bullet and italics. (4 marks)

Describe three ways of starting a spreadsheet program. (6 marks)

Using a simple illustration, describe a slide in the context of presentation application. (2 marks)

Posted on June 30, 2022 by Toto Aish — Leave a comment

INTRODUCTION TO LAW AND ETHICS DECEMBER 2021 PAST PAPER

WEDNESDAY: 15 December 2021. Time Allowed: 3 hours.

This paper has three sections. SECTION 1 has forty (40) multiple choice questions. SECTION II has twenty (20) short response questions. SECTION III has one (1) essay question. All questions are compulsory. Marks allocated to each question are shown at the end of the question.

SECTION I – 40 MARKS

Identify the statement that BEST describes “morals”.

(a) How all people behave.

(b) The way the government expects us to behave.

(d) Ways in which people are able to distinguish between right from wrong. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a branch of civil law?

(a) Family law.

(b) Law relating to traffic offences.

(d) Law relating to succession. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a function of law?

(a) Law promotes good governance.

(b) Law provides legal remedies.

(d) Law helps citizens of a country to be morally upright. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of statute law?

(a) It is the best source of law.

(b) It is dynamic.

(d) It is democratic in nature. ( 1 mark)

Which statement BEST describes a declaratory precedent?

(a) Where parliament declares a judicial precedent as declaratory.

(b) Where the judge has applied an existing legal principle or proposition of law in a subsequent case.

(d) Where the judges avoid following a previous decision which they would otherwise be bound to follow. (1 mark)

Which of the following United Kingdom statutes is NOT a source of law in Kenya?

(a) The Admiralty Offences (Colonial) Act, 1849.

(b) The Evidence by Commission Act, 1885.

(d) The Evidence Act, 1851. ( 1 mark)

In determination of cases under Islamic Law, Kadhi’s courts DO NOT have jurisdiction over matters relating to:

(a) Personal status.

(b) Social development.

(d) Inheritance. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a feature of common law?

(a) Developed as a complete system of law.

(b) Developed from customs, usages and practices of English people.

(d) Developed on the basis of the writ system and stare decisis. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a way of terminating an offer of a contract?

(a) Counter offer.

(b) Lapse of time.

(d) Renegotiating the contract. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a subordinate court?

(a) Employment and labour relations court.

(b) Magistrate court.

(d) Kadhis court. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a form of delivery in relation to sale of goods?

(a) Physical transfer of goods.

(b) Delivery of the means of control.

(d) Delivery to a relative of the owner of the goods. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a reason that may lead a principal under agency law to sue or take court actions against the agent?

(a) If an agent has acted in breach of contract.

(b) If an agent has been declared bankrupt.

(d) To ascertain what the agent has in possession. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT found in Chapter Six of the Kenyan Constitution 2010 on leadership and integrity?

(a) Conduct of state officers.

(b) Rights and fundamental freedoms.

(d) Establishment of Ethics and Anti-Corruption Commission. (1 mark)

A public officer is NOT restricted by law from:

(a) Retaining any gifts received in official capacity.

(b) Accepting a monetary gift.

(d) Operating a bank account in Kenya. (1 mark)

Which statement BEST describes “integrity”?

(a) Quality of having strong ethical principles that are followed at all times.

(b) An obligation or willingness to accept responsibility or to account for one’s actions.

(d) Moral principles that govern a person’s behavior or the conduct of an activity. (1 mark)

Which of the following statement describes deontological ethical theories?

(a) They are based on one’s ability to predict the consequences of an action.

(b) The rights established by the society are protected and given the highest priority.

(d) People should adhere to their obligations and duties when engaged in decision making when ethics are at play. (1 mark)

In dispute resolution, the High Court might appoint an arbitrator or an umpire.

In which of the following cases is the High Court NOT empowered by the law to appoint an arbitrator?

(a) The parties fail to appoint a single arbitrator as required.

(b) Where the appointed arbitrator refuses to do his job.

(d) Where two arbitrators are required but only one is appointed. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a dispute resolution mechanism?

(a) Conflict resolution.

(b) Arbitration.

(d) Negotiation. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Judiciary?

(a) Interpret law.

(b) Resolve disputes.

(d) Make laws. (1 mark)

The Court of Appeal is normally bound by its own previous decisions in civil cases as well as those of the Supreme Court.

Which of the following instances can a Court of Appeal depart from its own decisions?

(a) When there are two similar decisions.

(b) When the decision will hurt either the plaintiff or the defendant.

(d) Where time is of essence and the case should be concluded the earliest time possible. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a writ issued by the High Court while exercising its supervisory jurisdiction?

(a) Prohibition.

(b) Certiorari.

(d) Mandamus. (1 mark)

Choose a content in the Memorandum of Association that relates to incorporation of companies.

(a) A statement that the liability of its members is limited.

(b) A statement showing the powers of the company in relation to borrowing.

(d) A statement showing how the auditor will be appointed and dismissed. (1 mark)

Identify one way of establishing a corporation.

(a) By agreement between different people.

(b) By inheriting from parents.

(d) By buying an already existing corporation. (1 mark)

Which of the following statements is true?

Citizenship is not lost through marriage or the dissolution of marriage.

Citizenship may only be acquired through birth.

All foreigners are required to apply for citizenship for them to be allowed to work in Kenya.

A person with Kenya citizenship should not be a citizen of another country. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following CANNOT be deduced from the rule in Ryland’s Vs. Fletcher?

(a) The defendant brings in his land for his own purpose something likely to do mischief.

(b) The thing brought escapes.

(d) The result of the thing that escapes causes foreseeable damage in the plaintiffs land. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a defence to fair comment in an action for defamation?

(a) The statement was unintentionally made.

(b) The statement was in public interest.

(d) The statement was a comment based on true facts. (1 mark)

Which of the following is a defence available to the occupier against liability to a trespasser?

(a) Liability was excluded by the contract between the parties.

(b) That the trespasser entered the premises without permission.

(d) That the trespasser was already injured while he entered the premises. (1 mark)

Which of the following statements BEST describes “res ipsa loquitur”?

(a) The plaintiff was not as physically fit as other persons.

(b) Things speak for themselves.

(d) The plaintiff did not suffer much. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a form of the tort of trespass?

(a) Trespass to person.

(b) Trespass to land.

(d) Trespass to neighbour’s property. (I mark)

In which of the following cases is Quantum Meruit NOT available as an equitable remedy?

(a) Where partial performance is not accepted.

(b) Where contract does not specify the amount or sum payable.

(d) Where a party ready and willing to perform its part of the contract but is prevented from doing so by the other. (1 mark)

Which of the following is an EXCEPTION to the rule requiring communication of acceptance under the law of contract?

(a) An offer made to a class of persons can be accepted only by a person of that class.

(b) An offer made to the general public cannot be accepted unless it is made in writing.

(d) It is not a must for an offer to be accepted for a contract to be deemed valid. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following mistakes is a ground to make a contract void?

(a) Spelling mistakes in the contract document.

(b) Mistake as to the quality of the subject matter.

(d) Mistakes relating to under performance of the obligations created by the contract. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a way in which a contract may be discharged?

(a) Discharge by agreement.

(b) Discharge by performance.

(d) Discharge by sub-contracting. (1 mark)

Which of the following could be the LEAST likely consequence of whistle blowing?

(a) Being referred to as a traitor.

(b) Harm to self and close family members.

(d) Being admonished by the employer for whistleblowing or illegitimate acts by employees. (1 mark)

Which of the following is a document of title in commercial transactions?

(a) Bill of lading.

(b) Invoice.

(d) Cheques. (I mark)

Which of the following is an EXCEPTION to privity of contract rule?

(a) The assignee of a lease.

(b) The doctor who gives a patient a wrong prescription.

(d) Where the contract is frustrated. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a remedy available to the buyer for breach of the contract for sale of goods.

(a) Specific performance.

(b) Renegotiate the contract for sale of goods.

(d) A right to reject the goods. (1 mark)

Which of the following fields is ethics less related to?

(a) Psychology.

(b) Sociology.

(d) Economics. (1 mark)

Which of the following statement is false?

(a) A related party transaction is an arrangement between two parties that have a pre-existing business relationship.

(b) Related party transactions could result in fraud or financial ruins for all parties involved.

(d) Regulatory bodies have a role to ensure that related party transactions are checked and disclosed. (1 mark)

Which of the statement below BEST describes a “virtue”.

(a) The philosophy of doing good.

(b) The strength to carry on.

(d) Principles of moral conduct. ( 1 mark)

SECTION II – 40 MARKS

You are advised not to exceed forty words in answering questions number 41 to 60.

Explain two principles of natural justice. (2 marks)

Distinguish between “mediation” and “arbitration”. (2 marks)

State two ethical issues that could arise in a business today. (2 marks)

Summarise two roles of kasneb in the growth of professionalism in Kenya. (2 marks)

Explain the meaning of the term “defamation”. (2 marks)

In law of torts, explain the difference between “nuisance” and “negligence”. (2 marks)

Describe the following shortcomings of common law:

Procedural technicalities. ( 1 mark)

Inadequate remedies. (1 mark)

Highlight two legally binding contracts to minors. (2 marks)

Distinguish between “ethics” and “values”. (2 marks)

With reference to moral behavior, explain the following:

Moral judgement. ( 1 mark)

Moral character. ( I mark)

In most cases, interpretation of what is moral is influenced by cultural norms.

With reference to the above statement, explain the theory of cultural relativism. (2 marks)

Ethical standards may be different in various countries.

Explain the above statement in the context of global distribution of Covid-19 vaccines during the early days of vaccine discovery. (2 marks)

Explain the intrinsic value of studying ethics. (2 marks)

Explain the term “ethical dilemma”. (2 marks)

Distinguish between “procedural” and “substantive” law. (2 marks)

With regards to negligence, explain the defense of contributory negligence. (2 marks)

Summarise two primary parties to a contract. (2 marks)

With reference to contracts, describe the following:

Voidable contract. (1 mark)

Unenforceable contract. (1 mark)

What is administration law? (2 marks)

With reference to forms of business organisations, explain the term “limited partnership“. (2 marks)

Define the term “law”. (2 marks)

State six purposes of law. (6 marks)

With respect to court judgements, distinguish between “Ratio decidendi” and “Obiter dicta”. (4 marks)

One of the recognised sources of law in a country is the Acts of Parliament.

With reference to the above statement, discuss four merits of acts of parliament as a source of law.
(8 marks)

Posted on June 30, 2022June 30, 2022 by Toto Aish — Leave a comment

PRINCIPLES OF ENTREPRENEURSHIP AND MANAGEMENT DECEMBER 2021 PAST PAPER

WEDNESDAY: 15 December 2021. Time Allowed: 3 hours.

This paper has three sections. SECTION 1 has forty (40) multiple choice questions. SECTION 11 has twenty (20) short response questions. SECTION III has one (1) essay question. All questions are compulsory. Marks allocated to each question are shown at the end of the question.

SECTION I – 40 MARKS

Which of the following BEST explains the practice of empowering employees by valuing their ideas and converting them into profitable undertakings?

(a) Entrepreneurship.

(b) Intrapreneurship.

(d) Innovation. ( 1 mark)

Identify one method of generating new business ideas.

(a) Brainstorming.

(b) Screening.

(d) Hobbies. ( 1 mark)

Which one of the following is NOT a factor to consider while choosing a business entry option?

(a) Government regulation.

(b) Commencement date.

(d) Risks involved. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following is a limitation of debt finance?

(a) It is a short-term finance.

(b) Only available in small quantities.

(d) Interest is a legal obligation. (1 mark)

Identify one legal requirement for a start-up business.

(a) Accessibility to customers.

(b) Enough capital.

(d) Qualified employees. (1 mark)

Which of the following is a personal characteristic of a successful entrepreneur?

(a) Dependent.

(b) Fears risk.

(d) Confident. (1 mark)

Which one of the following BEST explains the process of helping small start-up businesses to become self-sustaining?

(a) Business incubation.

(b) Business angels.

(d) Business finance. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a component of the marketing mix?

(a) People.

(b) Profit.

(d) Physical evidence. (1 mark)

Identify one type of entrepreneur.

(a) Manager.

(b) Networker.

(d) Risk taker. (1 mark)

Which of the following BEST explains a business model where successful entrepreneurs allow other businesses to market goods and services under their brand names?

(a) Joint venture.

(b) Partnership.

(d) Franchising. ( 1 mark)

Identify one reason that has led to the popularity of microfinance institutions in your country.

(a) Accessible to low income earners.

(b) Give small amounts of money.

(d) They are located near customers. (1 mark)

Which statement best explains why it is important to create a schedule in the process of launching a new product?

(a) Ensures customers are informed of the new product.

(b) Ensures tasks are completed in time.

(d) Ensures the product satisfies customers’ needs. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a factor that an entrepreneur could consider while identifying a target market?

(a) Size.

(b) Competition.

(d) Income levels. ( 1 mark)

Identify one factor that an entrepreneur could consider while choosing a business location.

(a) Promotion of products.

(b) Labour.

(d) Business plan. (1 mark)

Which one of the following is a source of short-term finance?

(a) Equity.

(b) Debentures.

(d) Retained earnings. (1 mark)

Identify one way that the government could promote entrepreneurship in your country.

(a) Laws and regulations.

(b) Corruption.

(d) Building training institutions. ( 1 mark)

Which one of the following is an objective of evaluating a business idea?

(a) Ensure it is well known by the customers.

(b) Ensure that is tested by customers.

(d) Ensure it is not against society’s expectations. (1 mark)

Identify one reason why an entrepreneur could choose to start a sole proprietorship form of business.

(a) Limited liabilities.

(b) Large capital.

(d) Sharing risks. (1 mark)

Which one of the following is an objective of sending free samples to influencers before launching a new product?

(a) They are likely to buy more products.

(b) They have a lot of money to buy products.

(d) They are likely to share details with followers. (1 mark)

Which one of the following BEST explains the art of getting things done through the efforts of other people?

(a) Delegation.

(h) Management.

(d) Authority. ( 1 mark)

Identify one role performed by lower level management.

(a) Long-term planning.

(b) Appointment of other managers.

(d) Supervising operating employees. (1 mark)

Which one of the following BEST explains the management function of monitoring plans to ensure that they are being followed?

(a) Controlling.

(b) Motivation.

(d) Evaluation. (1 mark)

Identify one type of skill that a manager may require to effectively interact and work with other people.

(a) Conceptual skills.

(b) Interpersonal skills.

(d) Strategic thinking skills. (1 mark)

Which of the following is a characteristic of an efficient filing system?

(a) Confidential.

(b) Large.

(d) Authorised. (1 mark)

Which of the following BEST explains the summary tasks, roles and responsibilities of a specific job in an organisation?

(a) Job description.

(b) Job specification.

(d) Job analysis. (1 mark)

Which of the following represents a decision that a manager may require to make at the start-up stage of a business?

(a) Recruit more staff.

(b) Diversification.

(d) Location. (1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a technique that could be used to motivate employees?

(a) Recognition.

(b) Working conditions.

(d) Hiring employees. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following is NOT a reason for installing ventilations in office buildings?

(a) Ensure health and safety of employees.

(b) To comply with the law.

(d) To ensure air circulation. (1 mark)

Identify one benefit that could accrue to an organisation from hiring the right employees.

(a) Pay high salaries.

(b) Easy to recruit.

(d) Improved performance. ( I mark)

Identify the basic function of management that involves grouping of jobs and assigning authority and responsibility to perform them.

(a) Planning.

(b) Organising.

(d) Job rotation. ( I mark)

Which of the following is a challenge associated with the stabilisation stage of a business life cycle?

(a) Difficulties in attracting staff.

(b) High cost of promoting the business.

(d) Taking high risks. ( 1 mark)

Government can better help in forming new ventures by providing:

(a) Finance.

(b) Technology.

(d) Funds. ( 1 mark)

Which of the following factor has allowed small companies to act like they are big ones?

(a) Customers.

(b) Competition.

(d) Technology. ( I mark)

Mary found out the reason her leg wear was not selling was due to its colour. What could be the best source of this information?

(a) Supplier.

(b) Retailer.

(d) Government bureau. ( 1 mark)

A typical inventor is usually

(a) Highly creative and in love with the invention.

(b) One that encourages change.

(d) Not enthusiastic. (1 mark)

Which of the following shows the process of creating something new?

(a) Business model.

(b) Design.

(d) Innovation. ( 1 mark)

The activity which occurs when the new venture is started is called

(a) Motivation.

(b) Business skills.

(d) Goal orientation. (1 mark)

Why should an entrepreneur do a feasibility study for starting a new venture?

(a) To identify possible source of funds.

(b) To see if there are possible barriers to success.

(d) To explore potential customers. (1 mark)

Which of the following is a typical characteristic of most entrepreneurs?

(a) Choose high risk ventures.

(b) Choose low risk ventures.

(d) Choose no risk ventures. (1 mark)

One of the disadvantages of a franchise business for a franchisee is

(a) Lack of independence.

(b) Franchise business typically have a high failure rate.

(d) Training is not normally provided by the franchisor. ( 1 mark)

SECTION II – 40 MARKS

In questions number 41 to 49, indicate whether the statement is True or False:

Buying an existing business is always advantageous to an entrepreneur. (2 marks)

The business description component of a business plan contains the key management staff (2 marks)

Reduction of expenses is a bootstrapping technique. (2 marks)

Hawking is a type of entrepreneurship. (2 marks)

Imitating entrepreneurs do not have to invent anything new to make profit. (2 marks)

All incoming mail should be opened in the mail room before they are delivered to the person concerned. (2 marks)

All leaders are managers. (2 marks)

All managers require decision making skills. (2 marks)

Conflict in an organisation always leads to poor performance. (2 marks)

You are advised not to exceed forty words in answering questions number 50 to 60.

Outline two benefits that an individual could achieve from becoming an entrepreneur. (2 marks)

List two characteristics of a viable business idea. (2 marks)

State two advantages of joint ventures. (2 marks)

Highlight two reasons why an entrepreneur could prefer to finance a business using personal savings. (2 marks)

List two product decisions that an entrepreneur could require to make while developing a marketing mix. (2 marks)

Outline two disadvantages of running a business as a company. (2 marks)

Highlight two factors that an entrepreneur could consider while choosing a source of finance. (2 marks)

Outline two financial challenges faced by entrepreneurs in your country. (2 marks)

State two characteristics of venture capitalists as a source of finance. (2 marks)

Identify two factors that an entrepreneur could consider while choosing a business incubator. (2 marks)

Highlight two purposes of the appendix in a business plan. (2 marks)

SECTION III – 20 MARKS

Highlight five objectives of management. (5 marks)

Outline five advantages of conflicts to an organisation. (5 marks)

Describe five situations that may trigger innovation. (5 marks)

Explain five reasons why an entrepreneur may need a business plan for their new venture. (5 marks)

Posted on June 30, 2022June 30, 2022 by Toto Aish — Leave a comment

Certificate in Accounting and management Skills December 2021 Past Papers

Posted on June 29, 2022 by Toto Aish — Leave a comment

COMPUTER INFORMATION SYSTEMS APPLICATION APRIL 2022 PAST PAPER

INSTRUCTIONS: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS.

Section A (30 marks)

1. Spreadsheets are examples of _______________software.
A. Application
B. Inbuilt
C. System
D. Shareware

2. Which one of the following key combination is used to cut selected text and save it to the clipboard ready to paste elsewhere?
A. Crtl+X
B. Ctrl+End
C. Ctrl+W
D. Ctrl+Home

3. Identify a feature in office applications that is part of the spell checker to correct common spelling or typing errors, saving time for the user.
A. Auto Format
B. Autocorrect
C. Auto Change
D. Smart tags

4. Which one of the following is a cell reference that adjusts and change when copied for example using auto-fill such as SUM (B9:B15)?
A. Relative
B. Absolute
C. Active
D. Anchor

5. __________________shows the different levels of headings as designated by the styles applied in your document.
A. Outline view
B. Notes page view
C. Slide sorter
D. Slide show

6. The left border, Right border and Center are part of horizontal alignment for Data in a cell.
A. True
B. False

7. Which one of the following key combination is used to open an existing power-point document?
A. Ctrl+ C
B. Ctrl+ O
C. Ctrl+ E
D. Ctrl+ U

8. _____________ function returns the correct position of sorted or unsorted data.
A. Sum()
B. LCM()
C. Sort()
D. Rank()

9. Which one of the following is a technology used to combine information from different applications into your tables in access?
A. Ole Object
B. Memo
C. Lookup Wizard
D. Hyperlink

10. _______________refers to set of instructions started by the user, program, or operating system.
A. Thread
B. Software
C. Process
D. Service

11. __________________is used to control the margins of your page and the indentation of paragraphs.
A. Margin
B. Padding
C. Ruler
D. Ribbon

12. _____serves as a starting point for a new document in windows.
A. Workbook
B. Macros
C. Template
D. Modules

13. The introductory slide in a presentation is known as?
A. Main slide
B. Title slide
C. Bullet slide
D. Table slide

14. When ____________is pressed it moves the cursor to the beginning of a line?
A. End
B. Page Down
C. Home
D. Insert

15. Which feature of a word processor is used to check synonyms of the text?
A. Spelling
B. Thesaurus
C. Find
D. Mail merge

16. Which of the following is the method for increasing text to make it legible?
A. Ctrl+Z
B. CTRL++
C. View
D. Home

17. An intersection between a row and a column is known as?
A. Data
B. Cell
C. Row
D. Column

18. Which of the following is produced using a publishing software?
A. Calendars
B. Reports
C. Analysis
D. Presentations

19. Which of the following controls all information about the theme, layout, background, color, fonts, and positioning of all slides?
A. File settings
B. Main slide
C. Master slide
D. Settings file

20. A field that uniquely identifies a record is known as?
A. Primary key
B. Alternate key
C. Main record
D. Foreign key

21. Which of the following is true about default printer in a computer system?
A. The printer that prints all jobs unless specified.
B. Printer connected directly to a computer
C. Printer connected through a network
D. Plug and play printer

22. Which of the following is an input as well as output device?
A. Touch screen
Mouse
B. Keyboard
C. Printer

23. Which one of the following accounts allow users to carry out tasks that require special permissions, such as installing software or renaming a computer?
A. Administrator account
B. Standard account
C. Guest account
D. Default account

24. __________________ is used to navigate the file system and manage the folders, sub-folders, and applications on storage media.
A. Internet explorer
B. Finder
C. Vscode
D. File explorer

25. Which one of the following is a logical function that returns one return one value if a condition is true and another value if it’s false?
A. SUM
B. COUNTIF
C. AND D. IF

26. Which of the following keys opens the help window?
A. F12
B. F1
C. F8
D. F9

27. Which one of the following uses is NOT associated with Excel? A. Financial analysis
B. Charting and graphing
C. Statistical Analysis
D. Programming

28. _________________ are animation-like effects that happen when you move from one slide to the next during a presentation.
A. Slide view
B. Slide show
C. Slide Sorter
D. Slide transitions

29. Which one of the following is used to select the objects that you want to have the same formatting in PowerPoint?
A. Ctrl+Shift+V
B. Ctrl+Shift+C
C. Ctrl+Shift+Drag
D. Ctrl+Shift+>

30. _______________is an Access object used to view, analyze, or modify data.
A. Worksheets
B. Form
C. Queries
D. Reports.