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FUNDAMENTAL ICT SKILLS

TUESDAY: 5 April 2022. Morning paper.                                                                                                    Time Allowed: 3 hours.

This paper is made up of a hundred (100) Multiple Choice Questions. Answer ALL questions by indicating the letter  (a, b, c or d) that represents the correct answer. Do NOT write anything on this paper.

  1. Identify the name of keys present on the top row of a typical keyboard.

(a)           Navigation.

(b)           Typewriter.

(c)           Numeric.

(d)           Function.                                                                                                                                                   (1 mark)

  1. is a device used to provide a hard copy.

(a)           Computer monitor.

(b)          Cathode Ray Tube.

(c)           Printer.

(d)          Card reader.                                                                                                                                               (I mark)

  1. is a device used to connect two computers using a telephone line.

(a)           Multiplexer.

(b)           Router.

(c)           Concentrator.

(d)          Modem.                                                                                                                                                     (1 mark)

  1. is a light sensitive device that converts printed texts, drawings and other images into digital form.

(a)           Optical mark reader.

(b)          Optical character reader.

(c)           Scanner.

(d)          Plotter.                                                                                                                                                       ( I mark)

  1. Which of the following is NOT a pointing device?

(a)           Touch screen.

(b)           Magnetic Ink Character Reader.

(c)           Light pen.

(d)          Joystick.                                                                                                                                                    (1 mark)

  1. Which of the following file names is NOT properly matched with the proper application?

(a)           Employee.zip           Compressed tile.

(b)           Employee.jpg            picture.

(c)           Employee.htm             Web page.

(d)           Employee.Mdb            Excel.                                                                                                                    (1 mark)

  1. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of database approach?

(a)           It is easy to design and develop a database.

(b)          There is data independence.

(c)           There is controlled data redundancy.

(d)          There is data integrity.                                                                                                                               (1 mark)

  1. Which of the following statements is NOT true about databases?

(a)           Relational database is of 1:1 relation.

(b)          Network database is of 1: Many relationship.

(c)           Hierarchical database is of 1: Many relationship.

(d)          Network database is of Many: Many relationships.                                                                                   (I mark)

9. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a firewall?

(a)           Web creating.

(b)          Intrusion prevention system.

(c)           Bandwidth control and monitoring.

(d)          Malware filtering                                                                                                                                        (1 mark)

10. Which of the programming languages are described by the following statement: “They are procedural and problem oriented languages”?

(a)          Machine.

(b)          Assembly.

(c)          High level.

(d)          Fourth generation.                                                                                                                                     (1 mark)

11. Which software allows a personal computer to be used as a publishing and design tool facilitating production of top quality document internally while reducing printing costs?

(a)           Word processing.

(b)           Desktop publishing.

(c)           Operating system.

(d)           Presentation.                                                                                                                                              (1 mark)

12. Which of the following is NOT an accounting package?

(a)           Sage.

(b)          Quick books.

(c)           Tally.

(d)          Quattro pro.                                                                                                                                               (1 mark)

13. This is very special type of high speed memory whose main function is to make the programs and data available to the CPU very fast. Which of the following type of memory is described in this statement.

(a)           Virtual memory.

(b)          Cache memory.

(c)           Random access memory.

(d)          Register.                                                                                                                                                    (1 mark)

14. Which of the following is NOT a physical security control measure?

(a)           Smart card.

(b)           Security Guard.

(c)           Closed-circuit Television Monitor.

(d)          Biometric Access Control.                                                                                                                         (1 mark)

15. Name the component which takes digital data from computer system and turns it into visible images.

(a)           Printer.

(b)          Keyboard.

(c)           Monitor.

(d)           Scanner.                                                                                                                                                    (1 mark)

16. Which one of the following is NOT a definite advantage of fiber optic cables over coaxial cables?

(a)           Greater bandwidth.

(b)           Faster speeds.

(c)           More flexibility for the future.

(d)           Lower cost of installation.                                                                                                                         (1 mark)

17. Identify the statement which best describes an information security risk?

(a)           The likelihood that something bad will happen that causes harm to an informational asset.

(b)          A weakness that could be used to endanger or cause harm to an informational asset.

(c)           Anything man-made or occurring naturally that has the potential to cause harm.

(d)          The act of ensuring that data is not lost when critical issues arise such as; natural disasters, computer/server malfunction, physical theft among others.                                                                       (I mark)

18. Which of the following is NOT a computer port?

(a)           Chipset.

(b)          Universal Serial Bus (USS).

(c)           Video Graphics Adapter.

(d)          Ethernet.                                                                                                                                                   (1 mark)

19. To execute an instruction, the CPU will first decode the instruction into a sequence of electrical signals controlling the connections amongst the logic gates.

Which of the following unit is responsible for generating such signals?

(a)          Register.

(b)          Control unit.

(c)          ALU.

(d)          Cache.                                                                                                                                                        (1 mark)

20. Which of the following is considered to be the heart of a computer?

(a)           CPU.

(b)          Memory.

(c)          1/0 Unit.

(d)          Disks.                                                                                                                                                        (1 mark)

21. Which of the following is used as secondary storage?

(a)           Semiconductor memory.

(b)          Random access memory.

(c)           Magnetic field.

(d)          Magnetic tapes.                                                                                                                                          (1 mark)

22. Data is a stream of representing events occurring in an organisation?

(a)           Raw facts.

(b)          Meaningful information.

(c)           Information.

(d)          Numbers.                                                                                                                                                  (1 mark)

23. Which of the following components could be upgraded to improve the performance of your computer?

(a)          Monitor.

(b)          CPU.

(c)          Keyboard.

(d)          Printer.                                                                                                                                                      (I mark)

24. Which of the following is a storage area used to store data to compensate for the difference in speed at which the

different units can handle data?

(a)           Memory.

(b)          Accumulator.

(c)           Address.

(d)           Buffer.                                                                                                                                                       (1 mark)

25. Which of the following has the quickest access?

(a)           Direct access from a magnetic tape.

(b)           Direct access from a floppy disk.

(C)          Direct access from a cassette tape.

(d)           Direct access from a hard disk.                                                                                                                 (I mark)

26. Which of the following best describes an internal network designed to provide and disseminate information to internal staff by using the look and feel of the World Wide Web?

(a)           Extranet.

(b)           Local Area Network.

(c)           Intranet.

(d)           Internet.                                                                                                                                                    (1 mark)

27. Which of the following network security features is the best in terms of preventing users on a network from using programs and information that they do not need to access?

(a)           Right of entry.

(b)          Password rights.

(c)           Access rights.

(d)           Protocol rights.                                                                                                                                          (1 mark)

28. Which of the following constitutes the major forms of multiplexing for computer networking?

(1)           Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM ).

(ii)           Time Division Multiplexing (TDM).

(iii)          Spread spectrum.

(iv)         Wavelength multiplexing.

(a)           (i) and (ii) only.

(b)          (1) and (iii) only.

(c)           (i), (ii) and (iii) only.

(d)          (i) and (iv) only.                                                                                                                                        (1 mark)

29. Which of the following best describes protecting the data from unauthorised access?

(a)           Data inaccessibility.

(b)           Data encryption.

(c)           Data security.

(d)           Data validity.                                                                                                                                            (1 mark)

30. Which of the following software is generally used for what if analysis?

(a)           Word-processing.

(b)          Spread sheet.

(c)           Presentation package.

(d)          Database management.                                                                                                                              (1 mark)

31. Which of the following best describes what software documentation refers to?

(a)           The linking of one document to another.

(b)          Anything written about how the software is designed or functions.

(c)           The documents which, the user has to sign before using the software legally.

(d)          The compatibility of the software with IBM-PC.                                                                                       (1 mark)

32. Identity the computer generation based on Very Large Scale Integrated (VLSI) technology?

(a)           5th

(b)          4th

(c)           3rd

(d)          2nd                                                                                                                                                           (1 mark)

33. Which of the following statements is true for the second generation computers?

(a)           They use vacuum tubes.

(b)          They use magnetic drum for data storage.

(c)           They use transistors.

(d)          They use small scale integrated circuit.                                                                                                     (1 mark)

34. Central processing unit is made up of the following components?

(a)          Main memory and control unit.

(b)          Arithmetic logic unit and control unit.

(c)          Main Memory, Control Unit and Arithmetic Logic Unit.

(d)          Main Memory and Arithmetic Logic Unit.                                                                                                (I mark)

35. Which of the following is NOT a pointing device?

(a)          Light pen.

(b)          Joystick.

(c)          Trackball.

(d)          Microphone.                                                                                                                                             (I mark)

36. is also known as a desktop computer?

(a)          Laptop.

(b)          Notebook.

(c)           Minicomputer.

(d)          Personal computer.                                                                                                                                   (1 mark)

37. refers to moving from one website to another.

(a)          Attachment.

(b)          Uploading.

(c)           Browsing.

(d)          Downloading.

38. is used to add an attachment to an email?

(a)           Stationary icon.

(b)          Emoji icon.

(c)           Paper clip icon.

(d)          GIF icon.

39. What is the easiest way to place some graphics in some place in all slides?

(a)           Place graphics in Notes Master.

(b)          Place graphics in Slide Master.

(c)           Place graphic in Handout Master.

(d)          Place graphic manually in all slides.

40. is the space between the margin and the start of a paragraph.

(a)           Indentation.

(b)          Alignment.

(c)           Spacing.

(d)          Gutter.

41. Spreadsheets capability to allow a pie chart to be generated is known as

(a)          Function.

(b)          Charting.

(c)           Decoration.

(d)          Graphing.

42. feature makes it easier to add repetitive data to worksheet?

(a)          Sort.

(b)          Filter.

(c)          Autosum.

(d)          Autocomplete.

43. Identify network topology that uses a single cable to connect all the computers?

(a)           Star.

(b)          Ring.

(c)          Bus.

(d)          Mesh.

44. The data in ring topology moves in direction(s)?

(a)          Two.

(b)          Three

(c)           Four.

(d)          One.

45. has an inner conductor and an outer conductor separated by insulation?

(a)          Twisted wires.

(b)          Coaxial wires.

(c)           Wire pairs.

(d)          Fiber optic cable.

46. What is a multiplexer?

(a)          A device that converts digital signals to analog signals.

(b)          A device that converts analog signals to digital signals.

(c)           A device that allow several devices to share a transmission line.

(d)          A device that performs communication processing in a network                 (1 mark)

47. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of good information?

(a)          Up-to-date.

(b)          Relevant.

(c)           Complete.

(d)          Dynamic.                                                                                                                                                  (1 mark)

48. Which data capture method would be the most appropriate for reading the codes on packages, books and tins?

(a)           Optical Mark Reader.

(b)          Optical Character Reader.

(c)          Barcode reader.

(d)          Magnetic Ink Character Reader.                                                                                                                 (1 mark)

49. MICR is commonly used

(a)           Scanning products at supermarket counter.

(b)          To scan images printed with laser printer.

(c)           Read characters printed in a special ink used mostly in bank cheques.

(d)          Used for tracking hospital devices along with bar code.                                                                            (1 mark)

50. is an intangible computer output represented on screen.

(a)          Desktop.

(b)          Softcopy.

(c)          Software.

(d)          Window.                                                                                                                                                   (1 mark)

51. is a language that is close to human language and it’s easy to write, debug and maintain.

(a)          A high level language.

(b)          A low level language.

(c)          An algorithm.

(d)          Machine code.                                                                                                                                           (1 mark)

52. Which of the following programming language types was created first?

(a)          Procedural.

(b)          Object oriented.

(c)          Machine.

(d)          Assembly.                                                                                                                                                 (1 mark)

53. is a proprietary software where the source code is NOT revealed to the public?

(a)          Open source.

(b)          Closed source.

(c)          Freeware.

(d)           Shareware.               (1 mark)

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INTRODUCTION TO LAW AND ETHICS

MONDAY: 4 April 2022. Afternoon paper.                                                                                            Time Allowed: 3 hours.

This paper is made up of a hundred (100) Multiple Choice Questions. Answer ALL the questions by indicating the letter (a, b, c or d) that represents the correct answer. Do NOT write anything on this paper.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a classification of law?

(a)           Written law and unwritten law.

(b)          Municipal law and international law.

(c)          Public law and private law.

(d)          Natural law and artificial law.                                                                                                                     ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is a difference between “law” and “morality”?

(a)           Law and morality refer to the same thing.

(b)          Law is binding, enforceable and has legal sanctions while morality is not.

(c)           Laws are made by parliament while morality is made by God.

(d)          Laws cannot be broken while morality can be broken.                                                                       ( I mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a source of law in Kenya?

(a)           Legislation.

(b)          The Bible.

(c)          African customs.

(d)          The Constitution.                                                                                                                                            ( I mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental right guaranteed under the constitution?

(a)           Right to do what one wants.

(b)          Right to life.

(c)           Right to property.

(d)          Right to privacy.                                                                                                                                             ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following BEST describes the doctrine of ultra vires under administrative law?

(a)           It is a doctrine that requires administrative bodies to perform their duties with due regard to time.

(b)          It means that a court of law should always issue a maximum sentence that is provided by law when a person is found guilty of an offence under administrative law.

(c)           A principle that requires a person or a body to perform an administrative act or exercise a power within the limits allowed by statute.

(d)          A principle that provides that an administrative officer can perform duties delegated by his superior. ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Identify ONE effect of breach of principles of natural justice.

(a)           The breach gives rise to criminal sanctions against the person breaching.

(b)          The injured party can institute a civil suit for breach of principles of natural justice.

(c)           Principles of natural justice cannot be breached because they are binding.

(d)          Any decision or other administrative action taken is null and void and can be invalidated by the Courts. (I mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the National Government under the Kenyan Constitution:

(a)          Liquor licensing.

(b)          Language policy.

(c)           Promotion of sports.

(d)          Labour standards.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT an ethical standard expected of a professional?

(a)            Integrity.

(b)           Confidentiality.

(c)            Independence.

(d)            Religious.                                                                                                                                                             (1 mark)

 

  1. One advantage of using mediation as opposed to litigation during conflict resolution is that

(a)            unlike litigation, mediation guarantees confidentiality.

(b)            in mediation, you are guaranteed of winning your case unlike litigation.

(c)            unlike mediation, in litigation the judge is usually biased.

(d)           in mediation, the mediator makes the final decision while a judge makes a decision in litigation.                         ( 1 mark)

 

  1. is NOT a theory of ethics.

(a)            Utilitarian ethics theory

(b)           Deontological ethics theory

(e)            Capitalistic ethics theory

(d)           Virtue ethics theory                                                                                                                                              (1 mark)

 

  1. One of the following is NOT an organ of government.

(a)            County Government.

(b)           Judiciary.

(c)            Executive.

(d)            Parliament.                                                                                                                                                           (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a court’s guiding presumption in the construction of statutes or Acts of Parliament.

(a)            Presumption that the statute was not intended to change or modify the common law.

(b)           Presumption that the statute was not intended to interfere with individual vested rights.

(c)            Presumption that the statute was not intended to apply to all citizens.

(d)            Presumption that the statute was not intended to apply retrospectively.                                                               (1 mark)

 

  1. One key role of an ethical committee in resolving ethical dilemma in an organisation is

(a)            to ensure that disciplinary action is taken against employees who do not adhere to ethical standards of the organisation.

(b)           to ensure that only employees who are of high ethical standards are employed.

(c)            to advise the organisation on how best to deal with unethical clients and employees.

(d)           to  ensure there is effective communication, reinforcing ethical  values and good practice in an organisation.                                                                                                                                                        (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT registrable through the online business registration system in Kenya?

(a)           Negotiable instruments.

(b)           Companies limited by guarantee.

(c)            Partnerships.

(d)           Business names.                                                                                                                                                   (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a manner in which authority assigned to a state officer may be exercised?

(a)            Must be consistent with the Constitution.

(b)           Must demonstrate respect for the people.

(c)            Must bring honour to the nation and dignity to the office.

(d)           Must follow orders of their seniors.                                                                                                                     ( I mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a jurisdiction of the High Court of Kenya?

(a)           Hearing appeals from subordinate courts.

(b)           Hearing presidential election disputes.

(c)            Interpretation of the constitution.

(d)           Enforcement of fundamental rights and freedoms.                                                                                               (1 mark)

 

  1. A principle in administration of justice whereby previous decisions are applied in subsequent similar cases is referred to as

(a)           stare decisis.

(b)           obiter dictum.

(c)            ibi j us ibi remedium.

(d)           writ.                                                                                                                                                                     ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a maxim of equity?

(a)           Equity seeks to protect the less privileged.

(b)           He who seeks equity must do equity.

(c)            He who comes to equity must come with clean hands.

(d)           Equity is equality.                                                                                                                                                ( I mark)

 

  1. Distinguish between “statutory law” and “constitutional law”

(a)            Statutory law is supreme law of a country while constitutional law is not.

(b)           Statutory law can be amended by parliament while constitutional law can only be amended by the public directly.

(c)            Statutory law is made by parliament while constitutional law is made by the executive.

(d)           Statutory  law reflects the will of the people as expressed through their democratically elected representatives while constitutional law is made directly by the people and is superior to statutory law. (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of law?

(a)            Supremacy of law and equality before the law.

(b)           Patriotism, nationality and unfettered respect for superior orders.

(c)            Accountability to the law and fairness in the application of the law.

(d)            Separation of powers, participation in decision making and legal certainty.                                                                          ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Identify one dispute that cannot be resolved under African Customary law.

(a)            Disputes relating to land held under customary tenure.

(b)            Marriage, divorce, maintenance or dowry.

(c)            Matters affecting personal status.

(d)            Impregnating of an unmarried woman.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a right guaranteed under the Kenyan constitution?

(a)            Right to freedom and security.

(b)           Right to freedom of artistic creativity.

(c)            Right to electricity.

(d)           Right to go on strike.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. What does administrative law deal with?

(a)            The establishment of public bodies, authorities and organs and the nature of duties given to them as well as their relationship with the citizens.

(b)          The legal relationship between the public officers and the citizens.

(c)            Administrative of justice within a country’s legal system.

(d)           The mode of administration of the law once passed by parliament.                                (I mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT an element of separation of powers?

(a)            There should be different organs of government.

(b)           The organs should have different functions.

(c)           No person should be a member of more than one organ.

(d)           The organs of government should always be interdependent.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT an alternative method of dispute resolution?

(a)            Mediation.

(b)           Negotiation.

(c)            Forgiveness.

(d)            Arbitration.                                                                                                                                                          ( I mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a power of an arbitrator?

(a)            To enforce an arbitral award.

(b)           To determine whether he has jurisdiction to hear the dispute.

(c)           To provide interim relief or remedies where necessary.

(d)           To determine admissibility of evidence brought before him.                                                                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which expression best describes ethical norms?

(a)           These are standards which a society, organisation or professional body adopts to guide the behaviour of its members.

(b)           These are rules and regulations which are set by the leaders of a society, an organisation or a profession.

(c)           These are normal ethics which are set by parliament to be applied by a professional body.

(d)           These are moral principles that determine what is right and what is wrong.                                                         ( I mark)

 

  1. Describe the ethical principle of nonmaleficence.

(a)            It means that there is an obligation on every person not to inflict harm on others.

(b)           It is an ethical principle that prohibits making secret profit.

(c)            It is a moral principle of ethics that defines ethics.

(d)            It is an ethical principle that requires non male persons to protect their finances.                                                 ( I mark)

 

  1. Under what circumstances may one disclose confidential information in professional practice?

(a)            When one has a dispute with the other party.

(b)           One can disclose the information as long as he has been contracted to perform a specific act.

(c)            When one has legal or professional duty to do so.

(d)           When one is requested to do so by any person with an interest in the organisation.                                             (1 mark)

 

  1. What does “independence in ethics” entail?

(a)            Freedom from conflict.

(b)           Objectivity.

(c)            Intellectual honesty.

(d)           Subservience.                                                                                                                                                       (I mark)

 

  1. Define the term “Alternative Dispute Resolution”.

(a)            It is a procedure that allows parties to resolve disputes without resulting to litigation.

(b)           It is a procedure that allows parties to avoid a dispute.

(c)            It is a process of resolving disputes by court.

(d)           This is where parties to a dispute resolve not to have disputes again.                                                                   ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a manner in which a public officer should behave at all times?

(a)            In a manner that avoids conflicts between personal interest and public interest.

(b)           In a manner that avoids demeaning the office he holds.

(c)            In a manner that sticks to core personal beliefs. In a manner that avoids compromising any public interest.                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Ethics and Anti-Corruption Commission (EACC) in ensuring ethical standards are observed?

(a)            Prosecute and jail corrupt and unethical persons.

(b)           Investigate and recommend appropriate action for corruption and unethical conduct.

(c)            Prevent the occurrence of corrupt practices.

(d)           Recover public property acquired through corruption.                                                                                         (1 mark)

 

  1. Under what circumstances can a court of law NOT rely on Common law or Equity as a source of Law?

(a)            In the absence of an Act of Parliament.

(b)           If it is consistent with written law and the Constitution.

(c)            In a criminal case involving theft of public resources.

(d)            Where it is applicable and necessary in the circumstances.                                                                                  ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Describe the jurisdiction of the small claims court in Kenya.

(a)            Deals with cases between children.

(b)           Deals with petty offences.

(c)            Deals with misdemeanors.

(d)           Deals with matters whose value is below Ksh.1 million.                                                                                     (1 mark)

 

  1. Describe the composition of the Environment and Land court.

(a)            It is composed of two magistrates and one clerk appointed by the Judicial Service Commission.

(b)            It is composed of one judge and one magistrate appointed by the Judicial Service Commission.

(c)            It is composed of one Presiding Judge and such number of Judges as may be determined  by the Judicial Service Commission from time to time.

(d)            It is composed of a senior judge as the Presiding Judge and two other Judges appointed  by the judicial service commission.                                                                                                                                                                                                            (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT an example of a Tribunal in Kenya?

(a)            Political parties Tribunal.

(b)            Sports dispute Tribunal.

(c)            Copyright Tribunal.

(d)            Presidential elections tribunal.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is a punishment that CANNOT be issued by a court’s martial in Kenya?

(a)            Death.

(b)           Reprimand.

(c)            Admonition.

(d)           Extradition.                                                                                                                                                          ( I mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of a corporation?

(a)            It has a legal personality.

(b)           It can sue and be sued in its own name.

(c)            It has perpetual succession.

(d)            Members can enter into contract on behalf of the company.                                 (1 mark

 

  1. Which one of the following is a constitutional entitlement of a citizen?

(a)            Every citizen is entitled to a Huduma Number.

(b)           Every citizen is entitled to be employed.

(c)            Every citizen is entitled to legal representation.

(d)           Every citizen is entitled to a Kenyan Passport.                                                                                                     ( I mark)

 

  1. One of the following is NOT a reason why citizenship acquired by registration can be revoked.

(a)            Where it was acquired by fraud.

(b)            Where a person dies.

(c)            Where the person is convicted of a felony within the first three years of registration.

(d)            Where it was acquired by false representation.                                 (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is an illegal partnership?

(a)            A law firm with 30 lawyers forming the partnership.

(b)           A partnership formed while one of the partners was a minor but attained the age of majority few years ago.

(c)            A partnership between a husband and wife.

(d)           A partnership which is avoiding paying taxes.                                                                                                    ( I mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT an element of the defense of contributory negligence?

(a)            The plaintiff exposed himself to the risk by act of omission.

(b)            The plaintiff was at fault or was negligent.

(c)            The plaintiff was owed a duty of care by the defendant.

(d)           The plaintiffs negligence or fault contributed to his suffering.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a defense in tort?

(a)            Act of God.

(b)           Occupier’s liability.

(c)            Contributory negligence.

(d)           Necessity.                                ( I mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following does NOT amount to trespass to person?

(a)            Detinue.

(b)           Battery.

(c)            Assault.

(d)           False imprisonment.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Distinguish between “Libel” and “slander”.

(a)            Libel is defamation by word of mouth while slander is when the words are written and published.

(b)           Libel is when the defamatory statements are expressed in a form that is permanent in nature while slander is defamation by word of mouth.

(c)            Libel and slander are the same.

(d)           Libel attracts a lesser punishment while slander attracts a more severe punishment.                                            ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT an essential element of a contract?

(a)            The parties must have contractual capacity.

(b)           There must be a consideration from the offeror to the offeree.

(c)            Contracts must be in writing and signed by both parties.

(d)           There must be an offer which is accepted by the other party.                                                                               (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT an example of a legal offer under law of contract?

(a)            Hailing a taxi.

(b)           Bidding at an auction.

(c)            Application for employment.

(d)           Display of goods on a supermarket shelf.                                                                                                            ( I mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is an invitation to treat?

(a)            Placing a notice of sale on one’s car.

(b)           Taking an item from a supermarket shelf and proceeding to the cashier.

(c)           Requesting for the price of a car at a car bazaar.

(d)           Paying a premium for an insurance policy.                                                                                                          ( 1 mark)

 

  1. With reference to the Sale of Goods Act, distinguish between “specific goods” and “unascertained goods”.

(a)            Specific goods are those that have been identified and agreed upon by the parties at the time when the contract of sale is made while unascertained goods have not been identified.

(b)            Specific goods are goods that have been specified under the sale of goods Act while unascertained goods have not.

(c)            Specific goods are goods in possession of the seller while unascertained goods are in possession of a third party.

(d)            Specific goods have been passed on to the buyer while unascertained goods are still in the possession of the seller.                                                                                                                                                              (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following contracts of sale of goods is NOT void?

(a)            Contracts for the sale for the specific goods which without the seller’s knowledge have perished at the time the contract is made, the contract is void.

(b)           An agreement to sell specific goods which subsequently perish without the fault of either party before risk passes the buyer, the agreement is avoided.

(c)            An agreement to sell specific goods, price is to be fixed by the valuation of a 3’a partywho fails to do so, the agreement is avoided.

(d)           An agreement to supply luxuries to a minor.                                                                                                        ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a term implied in Sale of Goods contracts under Sale of Goods Act.

(a)            Goods must be of merchantable quality.

(b)           Goods must fit the description.

(c)            The seller must have the right to sell.

(d)           The seller must deliver the goods.                                                                                                                        (1 mark)

 

  1. Under what circumstance may the court imply terms in a sale of goods contract?

(a)            When it is necessary in order to give effect to the intentions of the parties and facilitate commercial transactions or give business efficiency.

(b)           Court may imply terms in a contract at any time on its own motion when there is a delay in performance.

(c)            When it is clear from the contract that the contract was exhaustive.

(d)           When the parties have mutually agreed to terminate the contract.                                                                         ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Identify a circumstance under which a factor CANNOT pass a good title if he has no authority to sell.

(a)            If he sells the goods to a purchaser for value who has actual notice.

(b)           If he sells the goods in his capacity as a mercantile agent.

(c)            If he sells the goods in the ordinary course of business.

(d)           If he sells goods of which he has possession of with the owner’s consent.                                                         (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a duty of a seller in a contract for the sale of goods?

(a)            Duty to put the goods into a deliverable state.

(b)           Duty to communicate any defect in the goods.

(c)            Duty to pass a good title.

(d)           Duty to deliver the goods.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Under what circumstances can a seller lose the right of lien over the goods?

(a)            Where goods have not been sold on credit and the term of credit has expired.

(b)           If the buyer becomes insolvent.

(c)            If he has waived the right.

(d)           When the term of the contract has expired.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a reason why a buyer may reject the goods and repudiate the contract?

(a)            If the seller delivers more goods than the quantity contracted for.

(b)           If the seller delivers less goods than the quantity contracted for.

(c)            If the seller delivers by installments contrary to the terms of the contract.

(d)           If the seller delivers the goods earlier than agreed.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Describe the meaning of the term “Nemo dat quod non habet”.

(a)           It means that a seller must have the right to sell in order to pass a good title.

(b)           It means that a seller cannot transfer a better title than he has.

(c)            It means that a seller who does not have a good title can pass a good title if he sells to an innocent third party for value.

(d)           It means that the seller must sell goods that correspond with the description.                                ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a way of discharging a contract?

(a)            Performance.

(b)           Breach.

(c)            Impossibility or Doctrine of Frustration.

(d)           Stare decisis.                                ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an objective of a code of ethics?

(a)           To promote and maintain confidence in the integrity of the corporation.

(b)           To harmonise the concepts of social responsibility, public accountability and profitability.

(c)            To promote the development of undesirable practices.

(d)           To lay down standards for personal and corporate behaviour.                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following interests are NOT protected by the law of Tort?

(a)            Physical injury.

(b)           Reputation.

(c)            Injury to property.

(d)           Loss in business due to the breach of contract.                   ( I mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a duty of a seller under the sale of goods law?

(a)            Duty to deliver the goods.

(b)           Duty to pass a good title.

(c)            Duty to put the goods into a deliverable state.

(d)           Duty to pay instalments.              (1 mark)

 

  1. The following are definition of various terms used in law. Which of the following does not match its definition?

(a)            Delegated legislation: Law made by parliament directly.

(b)           Ultra vires: Latin term which means “beyond the powers”.

(c)            Stare decisis: Latin term which means “the decision stands”.

(d)           Precedent: An earlier decision of a court.                        ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of a public law?

(a)            Contract law.

(b)            Law of property.

(c)            Administrative law.

(d)           Law of succession.               ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is the most supreme source of law in Kenya?

(a)            Act of Parliament.

(b)           Constitution.

(c)            Delegated legislation.

(d)            Statutes of General Application.                                                                                                                          (1 mark)

 

  1. In the event of a breach of contract, what is the purpose of damages?

(a)            To punish the contract breaker.

(b)           To compensate the innocent party.

(c)            To put the innocent party in the same position as if the contract had been carried out correctly.

(d)           To make the contract breaker face the consequences of his breach.                                                                     (1 mark)

 

  1. In relation to revocation of an offer in a contract, which of the following statements is FALSE?

(a)            An offer is revocable even in circumstances in which the offeror has promised to keep it for to a specified duration, unless an option exists.

(b)           Revocation becomes legally effective when notice is received by the offeree.

(c)            An offer is irrevocable after acceptance.

(d)           A bid at an auction is revocable until the hammer Ells.                                                                                        (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is a remedy to defamation?

(a)            Justification or truth.

(b)           Act of third parties.

(c)            Act of God.

(d)           Statutory authority.                                                                                                                                              ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a way of becoming a citizen in your country?

(a)            Birth.

(b)           Denunciation.

(c)            Registration.

(d)           Naturalisation.                                                                                                                                                     (l mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a way of forming a corporation?

(a)            By Registration

(b)           By Statute

(c)            By Charter

(d)           By Liability.                                                                                                                                                         (1 mark)

 

  1. Martin and Brian entered into a contract whereby Martin agreed to sell Brian Sh.10,000,000/= worth of Bhang, an illegal substance in the country. This is an example of which type of contract?

(a)            Quasi contract.

(b)           Void contract.

(c)            Voidable contract.

(d)           Judicial contract.                                                                                                                                                  (1 mark)

 

  1. In order to have a valid contract there must be

(a)           an offer and an acceptance.

(b)           a written expression of the terms.

(c)            a reliable witness if the contract is oral.

(d)           an understanding of the terms by one of the parties.                                                                                            (1 mark)

 

  1. Who among the following has powers to convene a court martial?

(a)            The Chief of General Staff.

(b)           The Inspector of Police.

(c)            The Major General.

(d)           Lieutenant General.                                                                                                                                              ( 1 mark)

 

  1. The maximum number of members a private company can have is

(a)            50 members.

(b)           25 members.

(c)            12 members.

(d)           2 members.                                                                                                                                                          ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is a general remedy for Tort?

(a)            Imprisonment.

(b)           Damages.

(c)            Retaliation.

(d)           Confrontation.                                ( 1 mark)

 

  1. A contract may be discharged in any of the following ways EXCEPT?

(a)            By frustration.

(b)           By performance.

(c)            By inaction.

(d)           By breach.                                ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a vitiating factor to a contract?

(a)           Ultra Vires.

(b)           Mistake.

(c)            Duress_

(d)           Undue influence.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is an ethical issue that could arise in businesses today?

(a)            Diversity discrimination.

(b)           Naturalism.

(c)            Social morality.

(d)           Kantianism.                                ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is a form of ethics which reflects an individual’s internal sense of how he should live and act as the basis for moral decisions?

(a)            Personal ethics.

(b)           Ethical virtues.

(c)            Ethical values.

(d)           Ethical principle.                                (l mark)

 

  1. Which of the following court comes third in the hierarchy of courts?

(a)            Court of appeal.

(b)           High Court.

(c)            Supreme Court.

(d)           Magistrates Court.                                ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a moral duty?

(a)            The duty to tell the truth.

(b)           Obey the law.

(c)            Protect people from harm.

(d)           Not keeping one’s promises.                 (1 mark)

 

  1. What do you call a set of rules for guiding the actions or employees or members of an organisation?

(a)            Code of conduct.

(b)           Mission statement.

(c)            Social responsibility policy.

(d)           Corporate ethics.                      (I mark)

 

  1. What is the standard of proof in a criminal case?

(a)            On a balance of probability.

(b)           Of adequacy.

(c)            Beyond reasonable doubt.

(d)           With benefit of doubt.                      (1 mark)

 

  1. The ethical approach that states that what is right for one person is not necessarily right for everyone is

called

(a)            rationalisation.

(b)            intrapersonal pluralism.

(c)            utilitarianism.

(d)            interpersonal pluralism. (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a freedom guaranteed by the Constitution?

(a)           Freedom of movement.

(b)           Freedom of dress code.

(c)           Freedom of conscience.

(d)           Freedom of assembly and association.                                                                                                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an area of ethical study?

(a)            Normative ethics.

(b)           Meta-ethics.

(c)            Applied ethics.

(d)           Advanced ethics.                                                                                                                                                 (1 mark)

 

  1. Explain the meaning of the term “ratio decidendi”.

(a)           All of the evidence and facts presented during a court case, which have been recorded by a court’s official.

(b)           The reasons for the court’s decision.

(c)            Identification of whether the case involves civil law, or criminal law.

(d)           Comments and statements made by the judge or magistrate during the conduct of the case.                               (1 mark)

 

  1. What is NOT considered unethical business practice?

(a)            Treating employees unfairly.

(b)            Training employees right out of school.

(c)            Selling substandard product.

(d)           Lying about a price to make a bigger profit.                                                                                                        ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a potential ethical issue in the workplace?

(a)            Bribes.

(b)           Harassment.

(c)            Whistleblowing.

(d)           Conflict of interest.                                                                                                                                              ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following BEST describes the liability of partners in respect of the firm’s debts?

(a)            Limited up to the amount of his capital in the business.

(b)           Unlimited.

(c)            Limited up to the amount of guarantee given by the partner.

(d)           Limited up to the amount of his capital and loan to the firm if any.                                                                      ( I mark)

 

  1. Two (or more) persons who inflict the same damage upon the claimant, but through independent means in tort are known as?

(a)            Several concurrent tortfeasors.

(b)            Joint tortfeasors.

(e)            Separate tortfeasors.

(d)            Independent tortfeasors.                                                                                                                                      ( 1 mark)

 

  1. The initial amount paid at the start of a hire purchase agreement is known as

(a)            Installment.

(b)            Deposit.

(c)            Cash price.

(d)            Hire purchase price.                                                                                                                                             ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following laws provides for the bill of rights?

(a)            The Penal Code.

(b)            The Public Officer Ethics Act

(c)            The Constitution

(d)           The Civil Procedure Code.                                                                                                                                   ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of a substantive law?

(a)            Civil procedure code

(b)            Marriage law

(e)            Law of succession

(d)            Penal code.                                                                                                                                                          ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a norm in the conduct of a public officer?

(a)            Commitment to public interest.

(b)           Professionalism.

(c)            Ambiguity.

(d)           Political neutrality.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. With reference to Public Officers Ethics Act, who among the following is NOT a public officer?

(a)            Chief.

(b)           Magistrate.

(c)            President.

(d)           Security guard.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a way of terminating an offer to a contract?

(a)            Standing offer.

(b)           Counter offer.

(c)            Lapse of time.

(d)           Rejection.                                                                                                                                                             ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Law can be classified into Public and Private law. Which of the following matches correctly?

(a)            Law of Succession — public.

(b)           Contract law — public.

(c)            Criminal Law — public.

(d)           Administrative Law — private.                                 (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT contained in Chapter Six of the Kenyan Constitution 2010 on Leadership and Integrity?

(a)            Responsibilities of leadership.

(b)            Dress code for State officers.

(c)            Conduct of State Officers.

(d)            Financial integrity of State Officers.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which ONE of the following is a privileged statement under the tort of defamation?

(a)            Any statement made in the course of and with reference of judicial proceedings by any judge, jury, party, witness or advocate.

(b)            Fair and accurate report in any newspaper of proceedings heard before any court.

(c)            A statement by a pastor while preaching to part of the church congregation.

(d)           Any statement made in parliament by a member of parliament.                                (1 mark)

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PRINCIPLES OF ENTREPRENEURSHIP AND MANAGEMENT

MONDAY: 4 April 2022. Morning paper.                                                                                               Time Allowed: 3 hours.

This paper is made up of a hundred (100) Multiple Choice Questions. Answer ALL the questions by indicating the letter (a, b, c or d) that represents the correct answer. Do NOT write anything on this paper.

 

  1. Which of the following is a challenge that an entrepreneur could encounter as a result of venturing into business?

(a)            Low competition.

(b)            Uncertainty of income.

(c)            Unlimited profits.

(d)            Self-employment.                                                                                                                                                ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following statements BEST describes the term “business opportunity”?

(a)            Situation which can be translated to a business activity.

(b)           Business activity that already exists in the market.

(c)            A well-established business that generates large profits.

(d)           A business that attracts many customers.                                                                                                             ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Identify a reason why an entrepreneur could choose a partnership as a business entry option.

(a)            High profits.

(b)            Fast decision-making.

(c)            Separate legal entity.

(d)            Share of risks.                                                                                                                                                     ( I mark)

 

  1. What term is used to refer to the personal investment of owners in a business?

(a)            Profits.

(b)            Equity.

(c)            Venture capital.

(d)            Informal capital.                                                                                                                                                   (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a legal requirement for entrepreneurs?

(a)            Trade licence.

(b)           Tax compliance.

(c)            Infrastructure.

(d)            Environmental requirements.                                                                                                                               ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following sentences BEST explains a characteristic of Fabian entrepreneurs?

(a)            Imitate technology and techniques innovated by others.

(b)            Start a business using their acquired skills.

(c)            Are not interested in growing their business.

(d)            Do not show initiative in implementing new ideas.                                                                                             ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Why do entrepreneurs require to generate new ideas?

(a)            Comply with government policy.

(b)            Ensure availability of resources.

(c)            Improve their skills.

(d)            Products have a limited life cycle.                                                                                                                        ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Identify one challenge associated with buying an existing business.

(a)           The business may be overpriced.

(h)           Lack of experienced employees.

(c)           Previous owners may interfere with the business.

(d)           It is difficult to retain customers.                                                                                                                          ( 1 mark)

 

  1. What do you call wealthy individuals who provide capital to business start-ups in return for part ownership?

(a)           Business incubators.

(b)           Business partners.

(c)            Debt financiers.

(d)           Business angels.                                                                                                                                                   (I mark)

 

  1. Which element of the marketing mix refers to the distribution channels used to reach the market?

(a)           People.

(b)           Processes.

(C)          Place.

(d)           Promotion.                                                                                                                                                           (I mark)

 

What is the MAIN benefit of social entrepreneurship to your country?

(a)           Wealth creation.

(b)           Community development and improvement.

(c)           Increasing regional business activities.

(d)           Creation of employment.                                                                                                                                      ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is a component of the executive summary of a business plan?

(a)            Marketing plan.

(b)           Acknowledgement.

(c)            Table of contents.

(d)           Cover page.                                                                                                                                                          ( 1 mark)

 

  1. What is the best business entry option for an entrepreneur who does not wish to dilute their level of ownership?

(a)            Company.

(b)           Joint venture.

(c)            Partnership.

(d)           Sole proprietorship.                                                                                                                                              (1 mark)

 

  1. Which statement BEST describes the meaning of crowd funding?

(a)            Raising large sums of money from several banks.

(b)           Payment of large sums of money to many people online.

(c)           Raising small amounts of money from a large number of people online.

(d)           Online sending and receiving of money.                                                                                                              (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a role of an entrepreneur?

(a)           Initiate ideas.

(b)           Offer credit.

(c)           Mobilise resources.

(d)           Make decisions.                                                                                                                                                   ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following factors is likely to discourage an entrepreneur from entering a franchising arrangement?

(a)            Lack of customer awareness.

(b)           Less freedom.

(c)            Standardised operations.

(d)           Use of franchisor’s brand name.                                                                                                                           (1 mark)

 

  1. What is the role of government in promoting entrepreneurial culture in your country?

(a)            Creation of an enabling environment.

(b)           Opening up many businesses.

(c)            Generating new ideas.

(d)           Acting as a role model.                                                                                                                                         (I mark)

 

  1. Which component of the business plan contains the goals and objectives of the business?

(a)            Business description.

(b)           Operations and production plan.

(c)            Organisation and management plan.

(d)           Mission statement.                                                                                                                                               ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Identify the form of business ownership option adopted by most entrepreneurs in your country.

(a)            Company.

(b)            Partnership.

(c)            Sole proprietorship.

(d)           Franchising.                                                                                                                                                         (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following BEST describes a strategy that an entrepreneur could use to retain customers?

(a)            Attractive packaging.

(b)           Advertising.

(c)           Good customer service.

(d)           Good corporate image.                                                                                                                                        (1 mark)

 

  1. Select a factor that could motivate an individual to become an entrepreneur.

(a)            Availability of jobs.

(b)           Skills in identifying risks.

(c)            Desire to work in a big company.

(d)           Opportunity to make a difference.                                                                                                                       (1 mark)

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a source of business ideas?

(a)            Failed projects.

(b)           Business plan.

(c)           Customer complaints.

(d)           Current trends.                                                                                                                                                     (I mark)

 

  1. Identify one factor that may discourage small business owners from using debt to finance their business ventures.

(a)            Long repayment period.

(b)           Leads to bad image of the business.

(c)            Lack of collateral.

(d)           Lack of accountability.                                                                                                                                         (I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following BEST describes a study that involves gathering feedback from a sample customer?

(a)            Consumer survey.

(b)           Customer care.

(c)            Questionnaires.

(d)           Interview.                                                                                                                                                             ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is a type of entrepreneurship?

(a)            Selling.

(b)           Hustling.

(c)            Franchising.

(d)           Imitating.                                                                                                                                                             ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a major consideration while assessing the viability of a business opportunity?

(a)            Return on investment.

(b)           Skills.

(c)           Infrastructure.

(d)           Demand.                                                                                                                                                              ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is an objective of sales promotion?

(a)           Direct distribution of products.

(b)           Increase level of skills.

(c)           Reduce number of competitors.

(d)           Announce product existence.                                 (1 mark)

 

  1. Identify one factor that is driving the growth of entrepreneurship in your country.

(a)            Technological advances.

(b)           Dependent lifestyles.

(c)            Increase in banking activities.

(d)           Cultural blocks.                                                                                                                                                    (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good business idea?

(a)            Requires excessive investment.

(b)           Involves high risks.

(c)            Has a long gestation period.

(d)           Easy to exit when necessary.                                                                                                                               ( I mark)

 

  1. What is the BEST form of business ownership for an entrepreneur who wishes to limit their personal liability?

(a)            Partnership.

(b)            Company.

(c)            Sole proprietorship.

(d)            Franchise.                                                                                                                                                            (1 mark)

 

  1. The following are sources of debt finance EXCEPT:

(a)           Personal savings.

(b)           Bank loan.

(c)            Trade credit.

(d)           Debentures.                                                                                                                                                          (1 mark)

 

  1. Identify one step undertaken in the process of launching a new product.

(a)            Write a business plan.

(b)           Contact competitors.

(c)            Screen the product.

(d)           Conduct testing.                                                                                                                                                   (1 mark)

 

  1. Select one advantage of running a small business enterprise from the following:

(a)            Easy to control.

(b)            Experienced management.

(c)            Adequate resources.

(d)            Financial stability.                                                                                                                                                ( 1 mark)

 

  1. What do you call a combination of products offered for sale by a business?

(a)            Product line.

(b)            Product breadth.

(c)            Product depth.

(d)           Product mix.                                                                                                                                                         (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following inhibits growth of entrepreneurship in your country?

(a)            White collar jobs.

(b)            Corruption.

(c)            Government support.

(d)            Training.                                                                                                                                                               ( I mark)

 

  1. Identify one method of generating business ideas.

(a)            Shows and exhibitions.

(b)            Focus groups.

(c)            Role models.

(d)            Innovation.                                                                                                                                                           (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is the MAIN reason for conducting market research before launching a business?

(a)            Establish demand.

(b)           Establish supply.

(c)            Know your products.

(d)           Know your location.                                                                                                                                             (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following BEST explains the meaning of bootstrapping?

(a)            Using limited finances.

(b)           Use of borrowed finances.

(c)            Using personal finances.

(d)           Using finances from many sources.                                                                                                                    (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following strategy could be used by management to manage the rapid growth of an organisation?

(a)            Sell part of the business.

(b)            Increase cash flow.

(c)            Hire competent employees.

(d)           Reduce sale promotion.                                                                                                                                       (1 mark)

 

  1. Identify one role played by top management in an organisation.

(a)            Train supervisory staff.

(b)            Establish policies.

(c)            Routine decision making.

(d)           Link between other levels of management.                                                                                                          (1 mark)

 

  1. The most basic and primary function of management is:

(a)            Staffing.

(b)           Planning.

(e)            Organising.

(d)           Co-ordination.                                                                                                                                                     (1 mark)

 

  1. What do you call the type of skills a manager requires to perform specialised tasks?

(a)            Technical skills.

(b)           Problems solving skills.

(c)            Conceptual skills.

(d)           Work skills.                                                                                                                                                         (I mark)

 

  1. A poor filing system could lead to:

(a)           Compactness of documents.

(b)           Paperless filing.

(c)            Fast data retrieval.

(d)           Duplication of documents.                                                                                                                                   (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following BEST explains the process of inspiring employees to work willingly  to  achieve the desired goals?

(a)            Management.

(b)           Directing.

(c)            Persuading.

(d)            Motivation.                                                                                                                                                          ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Identify one challenge associated with the growth stage of a business life cycle.

(a)            Difficulties in attracting staff.

(b)           High cost of promoting the business.

(c)           Managing cash flows.

(d)           Lack of customers.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. The following are steps in the process of controlling as a management function:

(i)             Establish deviation.

(ii)            Measure actual performance.

(iii)           Set standards.

(iv)           Take corrective action.

(v)            Compare actual performance with set standards.

 

Which of the following represents the correct order of steps of the controlling process?

(a)            (ii), (iii), (v), (iv), (i)

(b)           (i), (iii), (ii), (v),     (iv)

(c)            (iii), (ii), (v), (i), (iv)

(d)            (iii), (iv), (i), (ii), (v)                                                                                                                                            ( I mark)

 

  1. Decision-making skills of a manager means:

(a)            Select the best choice among alternatives.

(b)           Direct employees on what to do.

(c)           Understand how a variety of factors are related.

(d)           Deal effectively with conflict.                                                                                                                               ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Identify one step undertaken while handling incoming mail.

(a)            Signing.

(b)           Folding.

(c)            Weighting.

(d)            Sorting.                                                                                                                                                                ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a method that could be used to manage conflict in an organisation.

(a)            Reporting.

(b)            Encouraging.

(c)            Resolving.

(d)            Preventing.                                                                                                                                                           (1 mark)

 

  1. Which management function involves influencing the behaviour of employees towards achievement of goals?

(a)            Staffing.

(b)            Leading.

(c)            Disciplining.

(d)           Organising.                                                                                                                                                           ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which title is given to a person who is in charge of and coordinates the activities of a group of employees engaged in related activities within a unit of an organisation?

(a)            Vendor.

(b)            Employee.

(c)            Manager.

(d)           Contractor.                                                                                                                                                           (1 mark)

 

  1. What is a franking machine?

(a)            This machine dampens and seals the flaps of the envelopes.

(b)            It is used to weigh the letters, envelopes and packets.

(c)            It is hired from a post office to print stamps on letters.

(d)           The machine is used for printing addresses on envelopes.                                                                                   (1 mark)

 

  1. The process  of  arranging  and  storing  records,  so  that  they  can  be  located  whenever  required  is called

(a)            Indexing.

(b)           Filing.

(c)            Noting.

(d)           Arranging.                                                                                                                                                            ( 1 mark)

 

  1. In what method of filing is duplication avoided but secrecy cannot be maintained?

(a)            Centralised.

(b)           Vertical.

(c)            Decentralised.

(d)           Horizontal.                                                                                                                                                           (I mark)

 

  1. What is defined as a guide to locate the required file?

(a)            Filing.

(b)           Indexing.

(c)            Coding.

(d)           Organising.                                                                                                                                                          (1 mark)

 

  1. Identify one precaution that a manager could take to ensure safety of employees at the work place.

(a)            Install burglar-proof door.

(b)           Ensure enough parking space.

(c)            Provide employees with uniforms.

(d)           Install fire extinguishers.                                                                                                                                      (1 mark)

 

  1. Which department is responsible for recruiting and hiring the right employees in an organisation?

(a)            Finance department.

(b)            Supply chain management.

(c)            Planning and strategy.

(d)           Human resource management.                                                                                                                             ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Who among the following is a middle level manager?

(a)            Chief executive.

(b)           Supervisor.

(c)            General manager.

(d)           Finance manager.                                                                                                                                                 ( I mark)

 

  1. Why should in-coming mail be opened with caution?

(a)            Ensure safety of enclosures.

(b)           Not to damage the envelope.

(c)            Ensure efficiency in opening mail.

(d)            Safeguard against loss of mail.                                                                                                                             (l mark)

 

  1. Which of the following BEST describes employees’ qualifications and characteristics required to  perform a certain job?

(a)            Job description.

(b)           Job analysis.

(c)            Job specification.

(d)           Job design.                                                                                                                                                           (l mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a task undertaken in the process of filing business documents?

(a)            Indexing.

(b)            Retrieving.

(c)            Recording.

(d)            Duplication.                                 (1 mark)

 

  1. Identify one role played by top level management in an organisation.

(a)           Assigning jobs.

(b)           Motivation.

(c)            Training staff.

(d)           Monitoring the environment.                                                                                                                                ( I mark)

 

  1. What is the MAIN reason why big organisations issue gate passes to visitors?

(a)            Identification.

(b)           Safety.

(c)            Recording.

(d)            Directing.                                 (1 mark)

 

  1. Why do managers need decision making skills?

(a)            Direct employees.

(b)            Solve problems.

(c)            Enhance control.

(d)            Improve efficiency.                                                                                                                                              ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is a step undertaken in the planning process?

(a)            Monitoring performance.

(b)           Designing jobs.

(c)            Forecasting.

(d)           Setting up an organisation structure.                                                                                                                    ( I mark)

 

  1. Lower level management may also be referred to as:

(a)            Operational management.

(b)           Strategic management.

(c)            Tactical management.

(d)           Direct management.                                                                                                                                              ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is a factor that determines the number of levels of management in an organisation?

(a)            Location.

(b)           Size.

(c)            Number of managers.

(d)           Number of branches.                                                                                                                                           (I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following represents the skills a manager requires to assign authority and responsibilities to employees?

(a)            Leadership.

(b)           Motivation.

(c)            Interpersonal.

(d)           Delegation.                                                                                                                                                           (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following BEST explains why an organisation would choose to operate a decentralised filing system?

(a)            Uniformity of filing procedures.

(b)            Less duplication of files. ‘

(c)            Fast retrieval of documents.

(d)           Improved control.                                                                                                                                                ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Identify the MAIN purpose of good leadership in an organisation.

(a)            Provide direction.

(b)           Expansion of organisation.

(c)            Efficient management.

(d)           Performance appraisal.                                                                                                                                        ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following BEST explains why departments are important in an organisation?

(a)           Assign managers.

(b)           Manage office space.

(c)            Avoid conflict.

(d)           Specialisation.                                                                                                                                                      (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a strategy that could enhance health and safety in an organisation?

(a)           Hiring competent and trained employees.

(b)           Adequate supervision and control.

(c)            Proper personal hygiene.

(d)           Installing fewer machines.                                                                                                                                   ( 1 mark)

 

  1. At which level of management in an organisation would strategic thinking skills be MOST required?

(a)            Middle level.

(b)           Top level.

(c)            Lower level.

(d)            Supervisory level.                                                                                                                                                (1 mark)

 

  1. With reference to management functions, identify one step in the organising process.

(a)            Division of work.

(b)            Setting objectives.

(c)            Budgeting.

(d)            Motivating staff.                                                                                                                                                  (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following may NOT be a consequence of conflict in an organisation?

(a)            Hostility.

(b)           Withdrawal.

(c)            Competition.

(d)           Motivation.                                                                                                                                                          (I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is a procedure undertaken for both outgoing and incoming mail in an organisation?

(a)            Posting.

(b)           Weighing.

(c)            Distribution.

(d)           Recording.                                                                                                                                                           (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following BEST explains the process of identifying, attracting and hiring employees with the right skills and qualifications?

(a)            Employment.

(b)           Recruitment.

(c)            Screening.

(d)           Staffing.                                                                                                                                                               (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following could be established by a large organisation to offer customer support?

(a)            Feedback centre.

(b)           Customer department.

(c)            Call centre.

(d)           Marketing centre.                                                                                                                                                  ( I mark)

 

  1. Identify one step that could be undertaken in the process of hiring the right employees?

(a)            Training.

(b)            Performance appraisal.

(c)            Interview.

(d)            Compensation.                                                                                                                                                     (1 mark)

 

  1. The following are roles performed by managers:

(i)            Implementing policies and strategies.

(ii)           Routine day to day decision-making.

(iii)          Representing the organisation to the outside world.

(iv)          Responsible for major innovations.

(v)           Appointment of staff.

Which of the following represents a set of roles performed by middle level managers?

(a)            (i), (ii), (iii)

(b)            (i), (iv), (v)

(c)            (ii), (iii), (v)

(d)           (iii), (iv), (v)                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a method of classifying documents for filing?

(a)            Methodical.

(b)           Geographical.

(c)            Chronological.

(d)           Numerical.                                                                                                                                                            ( I mark)

 

  1. The steps in outgoing mail handling are:

1. Recording of mail.

2. Collecting of mail.

3. Inserting the mailing material.

4. Preparing the mail.

5. Sealing and stamping.

6. Posting.

 

(a)            4,  1, 5, 2, 3, 6.

(b)           4,2,  1, 3, 5, 6.

(c)            4, 3, 2,   1, 5, 6.

(d)           4,  1, 5, 3, 2, 6.                                (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is an advantage of using emails to engage customers?

(a)            It can only be sent to one customer at a time.

(b)            It takes too long to be received by the customers.

(c)            It can be sent to many customers at once.

(d)            It is too expensive.                                                                                                                                               ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Why would an organisation maintain an automated filing system?

(a)            Reduces need for storage space.

(b)           It is relatively expensive.

(c)            There is no risk of unauthorised access.

(d)           It results in duplication of files.                                                                                                                           ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective leader?

(a)            Visionary.

(b)           Encourage innovation.

(c)            Resistant to change.

(d)           Team-leader.                                                                                                                                                        (1 mark)

 

  1. Identify a reason why delegation skills are important in management.

(a)            Allows proper allocation of responsibility and authority.

(b)           Demotivates employees.

(c)            Employees lack interest in the work assigned.

(d)           It may reduce performance levels.                                                                                                                       ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a technique that managers could use to resolve conflict in an organisation?

(a)            Smoothing.

(b)           Compromise.

(c)            Confrontation.

(d)           Training.                                                                                                                                                              (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following statements BEST defines the term “conflict”?

(a)            It is a disagreement between individuals arising out of a difference in thought process, attitudes, understanding, interests and other factors.

(b)           A discussion in which people expresses different opinions about something.

(c)            A discussion or argument carried out between two teams or sides.

(d)            Consideration of a subject by a group.                                                                                                                (1 mark)

 

  1. The process of organising consists of the following steps EXCEPT:

(a)            Determining and defining the activities required for the achievement of planned goals.

(b)           Establishing standards for measuring work performance.

(c)            Grouping the activities into logical and convenient units.

(d)           Assigning the duties and activities to specific positions and people.                                                                    ( I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following is not a function of top management:

(a)            To appoint departmental and other key executives.

(b)           To coordinate the activities and efforts of different departments.

(c)            To assign jobs to workers and to make arrangements for their training and development.

(d)           To analyse, evaluate and deal with the environmental forces.                                                                              (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following functions entails bringing together the materials and human resources required for the achievement of desired goals?

(a)            Planning.

(b)           Organising.

(c)            Leading.

(d)           Controlling.                                                                                                                                                          (1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following category of skills refers to the ability and knowledge in using the equipment, techniques and procedures involved in performing specific tasks?

(a)           Conceptual skills.

(b)           Human skills.

(c)            Writing skills.

(d)           Technical skills.                                                                                                                                                   (1 mark)

 

  1. Which role of a manager requires that they gather information, disseminate information or act as a spokesperson for the company?

(a)            Interpersonal role.

(b)            Informational role.

(c)            Decision role.

(d)           Analytical role.                                                                                                                                                     (1 mark)

 

  1. The following are qualities of good managers EXCEPT:

(a)            Makes difficult decisions.

(b)           Has the ability to listen.

(c)            Uses micromanagement.

(d)            Encourage teamwork.                                                                                                                                          ( I mark)

 

  1. The following are characteristics of successful entrepreneurs EXCEPT:

(a)            Creativity.

(b)            Perfectionist.

(c)            Risk-taking.

(d)           Professionalism.                                                                                                                                                   (1 mark)

 

  1. Which component of the business plan details how an entrepreneur will generate income?

(a)            Business description.

(b)           Operations and production plan.

(c)            Customer analysis.

(d)            Financial plan.                                                                                                                                                      (I mark)

 

  1. Which of the following statements BEST defines the term “staffing”?

(a)            Attracting candidates to fill a position in an organisation.

(b)           Process of choosing the most suitable person for a current position.

(c)            Managerial function of recruitment, selection, training, promotion and compensation of personnel.

(d)            It is an instrument of developing employees by improving their skills and developing their behaviour. ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Which of the following statements BEST defines a “job description”?

(a)            The name of the position to be filled.

(b)           The scope of work to be performed by the candidate.

(c)            Various job-related activities to be performed by the candidates assigned the job.

(d)           It is the summary of all the tasks, roles and responsibilities with respect to a particular job.                                ( 1 mark)

 

  1. The following are strategies to retain employees EXCEPT:

(a)            Discourage professional development.

(b)           Give recognition and rewards.

(c)            Offer incentives.

(d)           Build a culture employees want to be part of                                                                                                        ( 1 mark)

 

  1. Who is responsible for collecting mail form the post office?

(a)            Security officer.

(b)           Messenger.

(c)           Gardener.

(d)           Receptionist.                                                                                                                                                         ( I mark)

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Certificate in Accounting and Management Skills April 2022 Past Papers

  1. PRINCIPLES OF ENTREPRENEURSHIP AND MANAGEMENT APRIL 2022 PAST PAPER– Click to view
  2. INTRODUCTION TO LAW AND ETHICS APRIL 2022 PAST PAPER – Click to view
  3. FUNDAMENTAL ICT SKILLS APRIL 2022 PAST PAPER – Click to view
  4. FUNDAMENTALS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS APRIL 2022 PAST PAPER – Click to view
  5. FOUNDATIONS OF ACCOUNTING APRIL 2022 PAST PAPER– Click to view
  6. ELEMENTS OF TAXATION APRIL 2022 PAST PAPER– Click to view
  7. PRINCIPLES OF MARKETING AND COMMUNICATION APRIL 2022 PAST PAPER – Click to view
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ENREPRENEURSHIP AND INNOVATION

WEDNESDAY: 6 April 2022. Morning paper.                                                                                      Time Allowed: 3 hours.
Answer ALL questions. Marks allocated to each question are shown at the end of the question.

1. The following are functions performed by an entrepreneur EXCEPT:
(a) Making business decision.
(b) Making customers attention.
(c) Taking risks and uncertainty bearing.
(d) Taking managerial functions.                                      (1 mark)

2. Which of the following is an obstacle to entrepreneurship growth?
(a) High risks involved.
(b) High status of businessman.
(c) Market perfections
(d) Unrestrictive effects of customs.                                  (1 mark)

3. _____________ is a process of creating something new.
(a) Creating.
(b) Modelling.
(c) Innovation.
(d) Business model.                                                               (1 mark)

4. The following are factors that affect wireless system EXCEPT:
(a) Signal encoding.
(b) Frequency allocations.
(c) Urgent situations.
(d) Multiple access mechanisms.                                         (1 mark)

5. Which one of the following is a merit of the small firm in the innovation process?
(a) Ability to raise finance.
(b) Ability to carry out research and development.
(c) Ability to carry out multiple tasks.
(d) Ability to act on new ideas development.                      (1 mark)

6. The following are characteristics shared by those who excel at recognising opportunities EXCEPT:
(a) Prior experience.
(b) Brainstorming.
(c) Entrepreneurial alertness.
(d) Social contacts and ties.                                                      (1 mark)

7. _____________ is conducted to assess whether a proposed business has adequate experts and resources to
successfully launch its business.
(a) Organisational feasibility analysis.
(b) Market feasibility analysis.
(c) Industry feasibility analysis.
(d) Financial feasibility analysis.                                              (1 mark)

8. Which of the following statements BEST describes the content for entrepreneurship?
(a) It takes place in small businesses.
(b) It takes place in large businesses.
(c) It takes place in a wide variety of contents.
(d) It does not take place in social enterprises.                      (1 mark)

9. The following are roles of incubation EXCEPT:
(a) It provides motivation to start up.
(b) It provides financial support to start up.
(c) It provides membership support.
(d) It provides networking opportunities.                                (1 mark)

10. What is the innovation gap?
(a) An opening that rivals might exploit.
(b) The time that elapses between invention and innovation.
(c) An opening that can be exploited by an entrepreneur with a good idea.
(d) A nation’s lack of inventiveness.                                            (1 mark)

11. A business manager who starts a new initiative to his organisation by setting up a new business can be regarded as_____________.
(a) Ecopreneur.
(b) Technopreneur.
(c) Entrepreneur.
(d) Social entrepreneur.                                                                    (1 mark)

12. Which of the following is the MAJOR characteristic of a successful business website?
(a) Innovation.
(b) Speed.
(c) Graphics.
(d) Products.                                                                                         (1 mark)

13. Which of the following is a disadvantage for a franchisee in a franchise business?
(a) Lack of independence.
(b) Franchise business has a high failure rate.
(c) Lack of brand identity.
(d) Lack of training by the franchisor.                                              (1 mark)

14. Which of the following attitudes is NOT associated with successful entrepreneurship?
(a) Competition and cooperation.
(b) Desire to influence others.
(c) Innovation and product improvement.
(d) Status quo in business.                                                                  (1 mark)

15. Entrepreneurial culture consists of the following EXCEPT:
(a) Encouraging employees to generate ideas.
(b) Focusing on opportunities.
(c) The desire to grow at a slow and controlled pace.
(d) Being creative.                                                                                 (1 mark)

16. A business plan is important for the following reasons EXCEPT:
(a) It forces firm’s founders to systematically think through each aspect of their new venture.
(b) It provides tenders and investors assurance that they will earn a decent return.
(c) It provides an investor with something to react to.
(d) It is a selling document that enables a business to present itself to potential suppliers and business partners.                (1 mark)

17. A ____________ is a professional money maker who makes risk investment from a pool of equity capital to
obtain a high rate of return on investment.
(a) Venture capitalist.
(b) Entrepreneur.
(c) Businessman.
(d) Buyer.                                                                                                  (1 mark)

18. A business arrangement where the one party allows another party to use a business name and sell the product is known as ______________.
(a) A cooperative.
(b) An owner-manager business.
(c) A limited company.
(d) A franchise.                                                                                         (1 mark)

19. A new venture’s business plan is essential because ______________.
(a) It helps to persuade others to commit funding to the venture.
(b) Can help demonstrate the visibility of the venture.
(c) Provides a guide for business activities by defining objectives.
(d) Helps an entrepreneur to reach a break-even point.                 (1 mark)

20. ______________ is a favourable set of circumstances that creates a need for a new product, service or business.
(a) A niche.
(b) A venture.
(c) A trend.
(d) An opportunity.                                                                                  (1 mark)

21. Which of the following is NOT a method of identifying an opportunity?
(a) Observing trends.
(b) Solving problems.
(c) Finding gaps in the market place.
(d) Trying out alternative uses of existing products.                        (1 mark)

22. Which of the following statements is FALSE on e-commerce?
(a) Can allow new ventures to compete on more or less equal terms with large firms.
(b) Can lead to small businesses having reduced contact with their customers.
(c) Is rarely used in small businesses.
(d) Is used in many different industries and markets.                     (1 mark)

23. The following element is LEAST to influence the timing of a new business entry.
(a) Government policies.
(b) Profitability.
(c) Consumer expenditure.
(d) Weather conditions.                                                                          (1 mark)

24. The following statement is FALSE on the importance of small businesses:
(a) They give an outlet for consumers.
(b) They derive huge amount of consumer income.
(c) They can provide specialist support to large businesses.
(d) They can be innovative of new products.                                      (1 mark)

25. ______________ is a problem solving technique designed to produce various ideas in a short period.
(a) Synectics.
(b) Delphi technique.
(c) Brainstorming.
(d) Nominal group technique.                                                              (1 mark)

26. Goods and services reach the market place through _____________.
(a) Marketing channels.
(b) Multilevel pyramids.
(c) Monopolitics.
(d) Multiplication.                                                                                    (1 mark)

27. The following are elements of the macro-environment EXCEPT:
(a) Political and regulatory factors.
(b) Customer needs in a given market.
(c) Social and demographic factors.
(d) Technological changes.                                                                      (1 mark)

28. Information about business competition can be obtained from the following EXCEPT:
(a) Websites.
(b) Product information leaflets.
(c) Telephone conversations.
(d) Company reports.                                                                                (1 mark)

29. Which of the following is NOT a form of intellectual property?
(a) Trade marks.
(b) Patents.
(c) Copyright.
(d) Tangible assets.                                                                                     (1 mark)

30. An idea of a new product is tested to potential customers to determine consumer acceptance at __________ stage.
(a) Concept.
(b) Product development.
(c) Test marketing.
(d) Commercialisation.                                                                               (1 mark)

31. The purpose of a good strategy for a small business is ____________.
(a) To increase turnover.
(b) To increase profitability.
(c) To achieve competitive advantage.
(d) To achieve stated objective.                                                                  (1 mark)

32. The fourth step in the entrepreneurial process is _______________.
(a) Growing the entrepreneurial firm.
(b) Deciding to become an entrepreneur.
(c) Developing successful business ideas.
(d) Initiating new rules.                                                                                (1 mark)

33. The following is an obstacle of a person becoming an entrepreneur:
(a) Gender.
(b) Education.
(c) Values.
(d) Lack of permit to stay in the country.                                                  (1 mark)

34. Members of distribution channels are ideal sources for new ideas because______________.
(a) They have well-developed sales force.
(b) They are bothered when an entrepreneur bears a loss.
(c) They earn a handsome profit from new business.
(d) They are familiar with the needs and interest of the market.          (1 mark)

35. Which one among the following is the MOST determinant element of entrepreneurial growth?
(a) Government.
(b) Politics.
(c) Market.
(d) Private organisations.                                                                                (1 mark)

36. ______________ entrepreneurs are very cautious and skeptical while practicing any change:
(a) Innovative.
(b) Initiative.
(c) Fabian.
(d) Drone.                                                                                                             (1 mark)

37. Which of the following BEST explains the role of an entrepreneur in economic development?
(a) Promotes imbalance regional development.
(b) Promotes capital formation.
(c) Increase unemployment problem.
(d) Promotes imbalanced national development.                                         (1 mark)

38. The status of entrepreneur is of ____________ while of manager is______________.
(a) Owner – servant.
(b) Employee – servant.
(c) Servant – owners.
(d) Employee – employer.                                                                                  (1 mark)

39. Subconscious assimilation of information is reflected in _____________ stage of creativity process.
(a) Verification.
(b) Incubation.
(c) Illumination.
(d) Preparation.                                                                                                   (1 mark)

40. The idea and actions that explains how a business could make profit is known as ________________.
(a) Mission.
(b) Strategy.
(c) Goal.
(d) Objective.                                                                                                       (1 mark)

41. ________________ is a concept that can be converted into a tangible product or service for commercial purposes.
(a) Business idea.
(b) Opportunity.
(c) Market.
(d) Business Plan.                                                                                                (1 mark)

42. The development of a new venture based on an investor’s work requires _____________.
(a) Heavy investment from financiers.
(b) Skilled human resource.
(c) Expertise of an entrepreneur.
(d) Highly educated staff.                                                                                   (1 mark)

43. A business where an individual is both the owner and conductor of business affair is regarded as _____________.
(a) Sole proprietorship.
(b) Partnership.
(c) Cooperative.
(d) Small business.                                                                                               (1 mark)

44. The period of business where an entrepreneur must position the venture in a market and make necessary adjustments to assure survival is called _______________.
(a) Pre-startup stage.
(b) Early growth stage.
(c) Startup stage
(d) Later growth stage.                                                                                        (1 mark)

45. An entrepreneur with an internal locus of control _______________.
(a) Has a high need for achievement.
(b) Believes fate is a powerful force.
(c) Feels comfortable in an unstructured situation.
(d) Believes that success or failure depends on his/her actions.                (1 mark)

46. An incubation is ________________.
(a) A government agency that advises and assist small businesses.
(b) A programme through which private investment companies licensed by government to lend money to small businesses.
(c) A centre that offers new businesses low-cost offices with basic business services.
(d) A specific geographic area to which the government try to attract private businesses by a variety of means.              (1 mark)

47. A business plan for a new business should include the following EXCEPT:                                                                                                    (a) A marketing plan.
(b) A discussion of the purpose of the business.
(c) A description of the company background.
(d) The name of the bank.                                                                                    (1 mark)

48. Which of the following is a barrier to new product creation and development?
(a) Opportunity cost.
(b) Motive.
(c) Attitude.
(d) Intrapreneurship culture.                                                                             (1 mark)

49. Most organisations begin the process of establishing organisational ethics programmes by developing__________.
(a) Ethics training programmes.
(b) Codes of conduct.
(c) Ethics enforcement mechanisms.
(d) Hidden agenda.                                                                                               (1 mark)

50. Which of the following is NOT a function of an ethical committee?
(a) Enforcing the code.
(b) Terminating the employees.
(c) Punishing violations.
(d) Rewarding compliance.                                                                                  (1 mark)

51. Which of the following statement BEST explains the benefit of business ethics to employees?
(a) Guidance to businessmen in decision making.
(b) Lead to high level of corporate governance.
(c) Lead to fair wages and other monetary and non-monetary benefits.
(d) It leads to the expansion and growth of business activities.                   (1 mark)

52. Which of the following is NOT unethical practice in business?
(a) Supplying inadequate information on the packages.
(b) Giving misleading advertisements.
(c) Utilisation of natural resources.
(d) Charging higher prices.                                                                                  (1 mark)

53. Why is the executive summary the MOST important section of the business plan?
(a) The section provides in-depth discussion of the major trends in the business.
(b) The section summarises the business key executives.
(c) The section has to entice the vender to read the rest of the plan.
(d) The section of the plan deals with the day-to-day operations of the company.                              (1 mark)

54. The following are causes of forced succession in family business EXCEPT:
(a) Mental breakdown.
(b) Planned departure.
(c) Severe business decline.
(d) Legal problems.                                                                                               (1 mark)

55. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a family-run business?
(a) Less access to capital markets.
(b) Less bureaucratic and impersonal.
(c) Less takeover risks.
(d) Long term orientation.                                                                                    (1 mark)

56. The internal source of innovation in enterprise comprise:
(a) Changes in industry structure.
(b) Demographics.
(c) Changes in perception.
(d) The unforeseen success.                                                                                  (1 mark)

57. The BEST marketing strategy to apply at decline stage of product life-cycle involve____________________.
(a) Heavy promotional expenditure.
(b) Decreasing the firm’s investment level selectively.                                                                                                                                                  (c) Product modification.
(d) Entering into new market segments.                                                            (1 mark)

58. A market segment should be____________________.
(a) Substantial and powerful.
(b) Powerful and measurable.
(c) Measurable and differentiable.
(d) Actionable and powerful.                                                                                (1 mark)

59. Which of the following is the correct sequence of creative process?
(a) Idea germination-incubation-illumination-preparation-verification.
(b) Idea germination-preparation-incubation-illumination-verification.
(c) Idea germination-illumination-incubation-verification-preparation.
(d) Idea germination-verification-preparation-incubation-illumination.    (1 mark)

60. The following are activities that an entrepreneur could carry before entering into a joint venture EXCEPT:
(a) Attending any trade show/trade fair organised by the potential partner.
(b) Checking the references for each potential partner.
(c) Collect much information as possible for the business and potential partners.
(d) Contracting the partners management skills and techniques.                 (1 mark)

61. Which of the following statement BEST presents a business opportunity in the environment?
(a) Change in family and work pattern.
(b) Discovery of new production technology.
(c) Enactment of new laws and government policies.
(d) Entrance of intermediaries in the market.                                                    (1 mark)

62. The LAST step to be taken by an entrepreneur when selecting a business opportunity is ________________.
(a) Screening of business opportunity.
(b) Preparing a business plan.
(c) Identifying the needs and wants of customers.
(d) Evaluating self and community.                                                                      (1 mark)

63. All the following are goals of setting up organisation website EXCEPT:
(a) Increasing opportunities for interaction with customers.
(b) Increasing locational limitations.
(c) Increasing the value of advertising.
(d) Increasing promotional products.                                                                   (1 mark)

64. All the following are risks to e-business EXCEPT:
(a) Fraud.
(b) Competitive edge.
(c) Access to data.
(d) Errors in service.                                                                                                 (1 mark)

65. __________________ is a benefit of electronic money to service providers.
(a) Increase in the cost of making payments.
(b) Increase of cash handling.
(c) Reduction of misappropriation of cash.
(d) Reduction of the access points.                                                                      (1 mark)

66. All the following are desirable measures of protecting a business from cyber threats EXCEPT:
(a) Set up a firewall.
(b) Turning off network encryption.
(c) Use of passphrase.
(d) Use of multi factor authentication.                                                                 (1 mark)

67. The following is a measure to avoid cybercriminals gaining access to a business network:
(a) Allow use of accounts with administrative privileges.                                                                                                                                            (b) Enabling administrative access entirely.
(c) Allow access to accounts with administrative privileges.
(d) Changing all default passwords to new passphrases.                                 (1 mark)

68. Which of the following statement is FALSE on training business employees on cyber threats?
(a) Should know how much information to use in business competition.
(b) Should know how to maintain strong passwords.
(c) Should know how to report a cyber threat.
(d) Should know what to do to overcome cyber threat.                                    (1 mark)

69. Which of the following statements BEST describes intrapreneurship?
(a) A process that takes place inside an existing firm that leads to new business venture creation.
(b) A process by which employees take risks regarding possible negative outcomes for businesses.
(c) A process where an employee leaves their jobs and establishes new businesses.
(d) A process by which individuals in an organisation pursue opportunities based on resources in an organisation.    (1 mark)

70. Starting a new business venture requires an entrepreneur who combines sound judgement, planning with risk taking to ensure business success.
(a) True.
(b) False.                                                                                                                       (1 mark)

71. ___________________ is a quality that represents a viable business opportunity.
(a) Market niche.
(b) Market share.
(c) Competitiveness.
(d) Timeliness.                                                                                                              (1 mark)

72. Which of the following is a personal quality that contributes to business opportunity recognition?
(a) Limited social networks.
(b) Introvert.
(c) Experience in industry.
(d) Limited skills.                                                                                                       (1 mark)

73. Social entrepreneurship is a form of entrepreneurship that_________________.
(a) Focuses on social environment.
(b) Encourages individuals to make profits in an innovative way.
(c) Supplies goods and services to the society.
(d) Tackles social challenges in an innovative and financially sustainable way.                         (1 mark)

74. Which of the following statement BEST explains the meaning of extension innovation?
(a) Taking new ideas to form a new product.
(b) Creating of a new product.
(c) Expansion of a product.
(d) Improving on value of a product.                                                                     (1 mark)

75. All the following are key sectors which enhance innovation to be accepted EXCEPT:
(a) Perceived risk.
(b) Product awareness.
(c) Incompatibility.
(d) Divisibility.                                                                                                           (1 mark)

76. The following statement is TRUE on merits of technological innovations:
(a) Increases process inefficiency.
(b) Increases marketing dependence.
(c) Increases fixed capital requirements.
(d) Increases product consistency and reliability.                                              (1 mark)

77. The third stage in the process of market research is__________________.                                                                                             (a) Analysing the information.
(b) Developing the research plan and design.
(c) Presenting the findings.
(d) Collecting the information.                                                                               (1 mark)

78. The corporate entrepreneurship strategy is composed of ____________________.
(a) External environment conditions.
(b) Innovative strategic vision.
(c) Competitive capability.
(d) Strategic repositioning.                                                                                      (1 mark)

79. Which is the MAIN source of entrepreneurial stress?
(a) Need to achieve.
(b) Political environment.
(c) Business cycles.
(d) Environmental stress.                                                                                           (1 mark)

80. Marketing research helps in ______________________.
(a) Identification of problem.
(b) Searching of the customers.
(c) Marketing of commodities.
(d) Establishing a commodity.                                                                                    (1 mark)

81. A new venture business plan is essential for the following EXCEPT:
(a) Helps to seek financial support from donors.
(b) Helps to analyse the viability of the venture.
(c) Helps to analyse the business competitiveness.
(d) Helps in guiding business activities.                                                                  (1 mark)

82. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(a) Market segmentation is a useful process for small businesses to undertake.
(b) Entrepreneurship takes place in a wide variety contents.
(c) Small businesses can be innovators of new products.
(d) It is a good idea for small businesses to compete solely on price.              (1 mark)

83. Which statement describes the BEST definition of a business plan?
(a) An entrepreneur’s expression of interest.
(b) A written document that details the proposed business venture.
(c) Entrepreneur’s diary of business activity.
(d) A list of business ideas and proven concepts.                                                (1 mark)

84. The following documents are presented to the registrar of companies during registration of a company EXCEPT:
(a) Articles of Association.
(b) Memorandum of Association.
(c) A deed.
(d) A statutory declaration.                                                                                        (1 mark)

85. Which is the major difference between a general partnership and a private limited company?
(a) Unlimited liability.
(b) Continuing of business.
(c) Low liquidity of investment.
(d) Management control.                                                                                           (1 mark)

86. The following statements describe circumstances favourable for operation of a sole proprietorship EXCEPT:
(a) Where owner prefers autonomy.
(b) Where promptness is required in decision making.
(c) Where personal attention with the customer is needed.
(d) Where the market is broad and requires large capital investment.             (1 mark)

87. Green entrepreneurship can be achieved through________________________.
(a) Use of plastic in packing items.
(b) Importing of second hand vehicles.
(c) Draining effluent into rivers.
(d) Use of organic materials to produce goods.                                                      (1 mark)

88. All the following are importance of using internet in building consumer relationship in business EXCEPT:
(a) Helps the business to connect with distribution channels.
(b) Helps the business to connect with customers.
(c) Helps the business to get new customers.
(d) Helps business to retain customers.                                                                   (1 mark)

89. The entrepreneurial process of identifying and evaluating the business opportunity involves__________________.
(a) Writing a business proposal plan.
(b) Carefully scanning the environment.
(c) Seeking business finances.
(d) Registering the business.

90. Which of the following is a personal characteristic that could hinder recognition of business opportunity?
(a) Prior business experience.
(b) Business social networks.
(c) Inability to solve problems.
(d) Entrepreneurial awareness.                                                                                   (1 mark)

91. Which one of the strategies given below is the BEST in encouraging creativity?
(a) Rigid organisational structure.
(b) Investing in human resource.
(c) Retaining employees in the same level for long.
(d) Penalising failed ideas.                                                                                             (1 mark)

92. Invention means the creation of new things and innovation means application of new things into practical use.
(a) True.
(b) False.                                                                                                                             (1 mark)

93. The following key element should be included on the introductory page of a business plan:
(a) Assessment risk.
(b) Products and services.
(c) Name and address of the organisation.
(d) Structure of the organisation.                                                                                  (1 mark)

94. All the following are sources of risks for a new venture EXCEPT:
(a) Weakness in the marketing production.
(b) Weakness of the management team.
(c) New advances in technology.
(d) Expansion of new market segments.                                                                     (1 mark)

95. __________________ is a type of financing provided by business angels.
(a) Debt.
(b) Equity.
(c) Crowdfunding.
(d) Factoring.                                                                                                                      (1 mark)

96. ___________________ is a form of finance for funding high risk businesses.
(a) Venture capital.
(b) Fixed capital.
(c) Current capital.
(d) Seed capital.                                                                                                                 (1 mark)

97. Which of the following is the backbone of financial plan?
(a) Budgeting                                                                                                                                                                                                                        (b) Capital.
(c) Name of business.
(d) Cost of production.                                                                                                    (1 mark)

98. Corporate venturing is also referred as _________________.
(a) Entrepreneurship.
(b) Intrapreneurship.
(c) Act of starting a new venture.
(d) Offering new products by an existing company.                                                (1 mark)

99. Which one of the following BEST explains the importance of a feasibility study for a new venture?
(a) Exploring for potential customers.
(b) Estimating sales.
(c) Determining the viability of a business.
(d) Forecasting the expansion of business.                                                               (1 mark)

100. Which one of the following is a social barrier to entrepreneurship?
(a) Inadequate capital.
(b) Change of currency.
(c) Lack of infrastructure.
(d) Custom of people.                                                                                                    (1 mark)

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COMPUTING INFORMATION SYSTEM APPLICATIONS

TIME:3HRS
INSTRUCTIONS: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS. MARKS ALLOCATED TO EACH QUESTION ARE SHOWN

SECTION I
1. Which one among the following is a user interface that allows the user to interact with the operating system by working with icons and menus?
a. API
b. CLI
c. GUI
d. PnP

2. Which one of the following is a built-in user account provided by the operating system?
a. Administrator account
b. Standard account
c. Guest account
d. Default account

3. Which one of the following is not a benefit associated with New technology File system (NTFS)?
a. Performance
b. Security access control
c. Disk space utilization
d. Intermediary between user and hardware.

4. Which one of the following tasks would best suitable the use of a word processor document?
a. Compute income and expenditure
b. Draw a diagram
c. Paint a picture
d. Type board meeting minutes

5. Which one of the following key combination moves the cursor to the end of the document?
a) Crtl+X
b) Ctrl+End
c) Ctrl+W
d) Ctrl+Home

6. Which one of the following keys is used to increase left indents?
a. Ctrl+I
b. Ctrl+M
c. Alt+I
d. Escape

7. Identify the use of pasteboard in graphics design.
a. Working area                                                                                                                                                                                                                   b. Print graphics
c. Backup graphics
d. Placing unwanted graphics

8. Identify the output device that produces durable carbon copies.
a. Laser printer
b. Dot matrix
c. Inkjet
d. Thermal

9. Identify the word processor feature in this text X2
a. subscript
b. Superscript
c. Window
d. Orphans

10. Which one of the following is a cell reference in spreadsheets that does not change when it is copied?
a. Relative
b. Absolute
c. Active
d. Anchor

11. Which one of the following is a special toolbar at the top of the Excel worksheet window, labeled with function symbol (fx)?
a. Psi function
b. Menu
c. Icon
d. Formula bar

12. What is the name of the intersection between a row and a column in spreadsheets applications?
a. Cell
b. Tabs
c. Name box
d. Worksheet

13. Which one of the following is a file extension for excel files?
a. .doc
b. .xls
c. .ppt
d. .db

14. Which one among the following is a feature in excel that fixes a row or column to be displayed when scrolling in spreadsheet?
a. Freeze pane tool
b. Format Painter tool
c. Go To tool
d. Autofill Tool

15. Excel charts allow spreadsheet users to create visualizations of data sets. What is the name of the region surrounding the chart?
a. Legend
b. Axis
c. Plot area
d. Chart area

16. Which of the following technology stores volatile data?
a. RAM
b. EPROM
c. EEPROM
d. Flash disk

17. What is the name given to giving live to text in presentation applications?
a. Transition                                                                                                                                                                                                                            b. Slide show
c. Animation
d. Fade

18. The interlinking of worldwide computers for communication purposes over the public network is called?
a. Network
b. WWW
c. Web
d. Internet

19. Where is the physical location of swap memory in a computer system?
a. RAM
b. ROM
c. Hard disk
d. Flash disk

20. Which one of the following functions counts the number of cells within a range that meet a given criteria?
a. COUNTA
b. COUNTBlank
c. COUNTIF
d. ACCRINT

21. The trimming of excess area of an image in Desktop publishing is called:
a. Framing
b. Bleeding
c. Cropping
d. Layering

22. ___________is the slide that controls the design of all other slides.
a. Master slide
b. Title slide
c. Formatting slide
d. Editing slide

23. Which of the following is an internet protocol that automatically translates internet addresses to their numeric machines address that computers use?
a. HTTP
b. DNS
c. FTP
d. NAT

24. Which one among the following is NOT an Access Database object?
a. Worksheets
b. Forms
c. Queries
d. Reports.

25. Which one of the following establishes a relationship between tables?
a. Ole Object
b. Memo
c. Lookup Wizard
d. Hyperlink

26. Identify the query that displays its own dialog box prompting you to enter information before executing.
a. Select Query
b. Crosstab Query
c. Dialog Query
d. Parameter Query

27. Which among the following allows you to navigate around your Access database application?
a. Database Window                                                                                                                                                                                                             b. Design View Window
c. Switchboard
d. Query Window

28. Which one among the following indicates the format of valid input values such as ##### being displayed when one enters data?
a. Input Mask
b. Subnet mask
c. Indexed
d. Validation Rule

29. Which of the following Desktop Publishing tools is used to locate the exact position to place graphics?
a. Ruler
b. Gridlines
c. Pixels
d. Pasteboard

30. A set of instructions that perform a specific task is known as?
a. Hardware
b. CPU
c. Software
d. Orgware

SECTION II

QUESTION 31
a. Create the following table and enter the following details using a word processor application and save it as “Question one”.

b. Compute savings using table formula as income minus expenses for Farming type (3 mks)

c. Calculate totals for “Income”,”expenses”, and “savings” for all types of farming (3 mks)

d. Add a row just below totals for the projections and compute average for “Income”,”expenses”, and “savings” for all types of farming.(3 mks)

QUESTION 32

Consider the information from Mr. Kioko’s presentation below
Slide 1:

Slide 2:
Group 1
Drawing
Painting
Photography

Slide 3:
Group 2
Modelling
Dress Making
Printing

Slide 4:
Group 3
Hill walking
Hiking
Cycling

Required
a. Create a power point presentation and save as “Question 2” (6 mks)
b. Input the following data in slide one. “GROUPS”, “BY MR. KIOKO” (2 mks)
c. Insert a new slide after slide 4 and input the following information (5 mks)

d. Insert a slide after the one in (c). Insert a column chart to compare the % per hobby (3mks)
e. Apply animation of your choice for text in slide 1 and 2 (4mks)

SOLUTION

QUESTION 33

Consider the information below about Mavuno land buying company

a. Enter the above data in a spreadsheet software as it is and save it as “plots” (8 marks)
b. Perform the following calculations using functions by insert the relevant row or column header

  • Total contributions for each person (4 marks)
  • Input the target contribution for all members as 1,800,000 (3 marks)
  • While refereeing to the cell with the value 1,800,000 in (ii) above calculate the deficit for each member (5 marks)

SOLUTION

(Total:20 marks)

QUESTION 34

Using a desktop publisher create the following publication name it as “Question 4” (15 marks)

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Communication Skills ands Ethics in Information Systems

1. Which of the following is a communication skill
a) Talking while someone is talking
b) Listening to what people say
c) Putting fingers in the ears
d) Looking outside the window
(Ans b – Listening to what people say)

2. Which of the following is not a way of gaining the audience attention
a) Narrative
b) Quotation
c) Illustration
d) Walking
(Ans d – Walking)

3. The best communication channel for Persuasive communication is
a) Face – to – Face
b) Telephone call
c) An E-mail
d) A Report
(Ans A – Face – to – Face )

4. One of the following is not a principle of communication
a) Is Irreversible
b) Is Complicated
c) Is learnable
d) Is inescapable
(Ans C – Is learnable)

5. ___ means communication without words
a) Object communication
b) Written communication
c) Oral communication
d) Non-verbal communication
Ans: d) Non-verbal communication.

6. The most important aspect of style in a language is                                                                                                                                                  a) Alphabets
b) Articles
c) Punctuation
d) nouns
Ans: C) punctuation

7. Back straight, and arms and legs uncrossed, indicates a ___ posture.                                                                                                                 a) Closed
b) Tensed
c) Open
d) Relaxed
Ans: C) Open

8. Teach, Design, Tell a story and play is __
a) Involve your Audience
b) Introduce the presentation
c) Attract audience attention
d) Close the presentation
Ans: a) Involve your Audience

9. __________in not used guidelines for constructing pie charts                                                                                                                          a) Label each slide
b) Exploding the slide
c) Positioning slides
d) Slide legibility
Ans: d) Slide legibility

10. One of the following is A part of a letter
a) The Attention line
b) Length of a letter
c) Use of Sentences
d) Punctuations marks
Ans: a) The Attention line

11. At each stage in the process of communication, there is a form interference which hinders the process. Such interference is known as ___
a) Sender
b) Receiver
c) Barrier
d) Channel
Ans: C) Barrier

12. The interviewer can judge the behavior of a candidate according to
a) Presentation
b) Intelligence
c) Socialization
d) Dressing                                                                                                                                                                                                                          Ans: a) Presentation

13. Which of these is not step in the listening process
a) To stop talking
b) Misinterpreting
c) Receiving
d) Responding
Ans: b) Misinterpreting

14. Which of these should be avoided for effective listening
a) Pre-listening analysis
b) Listening to structured talks
c) Team listening
d) Trying to Predict
Ans: d) Trying to Predict

15. The three elements of presentation do not include?                                                                                                                                                a) An audience
b) Specific content
c) Visual Aids
d) A presenter
Ans: d) Presenter

16. The three elements of Press Release do not include?
a) Announce something of value
b) It is a form of public relations
c) Help organization gain visibility
d) Launching of new products
Ans: b) It is a form of public relations

17. A report can be one of the following types
a) Routine
b) Research
c) Transmittal
d) Structure
Ans: a) Presentation

18. During presentation in front of an audience you should do all of the following except for__?
a) Speak loud and clear
b) Provide handout if needed
c) Dress professionally
d) Look at your screen not the audience
Ans: d) look at your screen not the audience

19. Which of these should be avoided while note talking
a) Concentration
b) Evaluation
c) Listening
d) Using phrases
Ans: d) Using phrases

20. The main goal of tables used in Visual aids for technical written documents is to eliminate
a) Repetition of words
b) Mistaken Words
c) Highlighting of words
d) Misunderstanding
Ans: a) Repetition of words

21. Which of the following is a type of non-verbal communication?
a) Letter
b) Body Language
c) Telephone Calls
d) Email
Ans: b) Body Language

22. One of the following is a limitation of oral communication
a) Allows instantaneous feedback
b) Doesn’t retain evidence
c) Use with non-verbal clues
d) Attention of the listener
Ans: b) Doesn’t retain evidence

23. The three characteristics of Voice
a) Tone
b) Volume
c) Accuracy
d) Pitch
Ans: c) Accuracy

24. The purpose of writing is
a) Time consuming
b) Avoid Mistakes
c) Future reference
d) Legal Requirements
Ans: c) Accuracy

25. ________is a characteristic of a Paragraph
a) Rewriting
b) Sincerity
c) Conversation
d) Length
Ans: d) Length

26. Memorandum (memos) may be used for any official communication. Usually, memos are used for?
a) Organization of the material.
b) For conveying schedule message
c) Factual information to management
d) Making an outline of issues
Ans: b) For conveying schedule message

27. The three objectives of meeting do not include?
a) It is a routine company practice
b) To get feedback from the members
c) To resolve conflicts and confusion
d) To understand the situation.
Ans: a) It is a routine company practice

28. A notice of a general meeting includes the following contents except?
a) Time and Date
b) Any other business
c) Place of Meeting
d) Nature of business
Ans: b) Any other business

29. The Secretary is responsible for ensuring meetings are effectively organized and minute taken but not
a) Circulating approved minutes
b) Receiving the agenda items
c) Calling meeting to order
d) Circulating meeting Agendas
Ans: c) Calling meeting to order

30. The purpose of writing minutes is
a) Meeting cannot be held without Minutes
b) Is within the scope of the meeting
c) To conduct the meeting smoothly
d) Serves as the record of discussion                                                                                                                                                                            Ans: d) Serve as the record of discussion

31. Types of business meetings do not include?
a) Team building meetings
b) Client review meeting                                                                                                                                                                                                      c) Innovation meetings
d) Status update meetings
Ans: b) Client review meeting

32. The extraordinary general meeting may be called in the following way
a) On the requisition of the shareholders
b) The company business is declining
c) On recommendation by the director
d) Employees feel such a meeting is due
Ans: a) On the requisition of the shareholders

33. Which among the following is not a key concern when designing a good presentation,
a) Length of presentation
b) Humor to use.
c) Presentation style
d) Cost of the presentation
Ans: d) Cost of the presentation.

34. Which one of the following is not types of advanced visual aid?
a) Posters
b) Flip Charts.
c) MS Office
d) Overhead Projectors
Ans: c) Ms Office

35. The three elements of presentation do not include?
a) The Venue
b) The Computer.
c) The Organiser
d) The Occasion
Ans: b) The Computer

36. The following statements indicates the purpose of introduction part in a report. Which one is not?
a) Historical and technical background
b) Scope of study, specifying limitation
c) The Summarizing of the findings gaps
d) Definitions of special terms and symbols.
Ans: c) The Summarizing of the findings gaps

37. Which of the following identifies the characteristics of a good report?
a) Reader-oriented
b) Editable
c) Up-to-date
d) Comprehensive
Ans: a) Reader-oriented

38. The three factors to be kept in mind while considering the tone of the memorandum do not include?
a) Reader of the memo
b) Memo subject-matter
c) Company in house style
d) Position of the writer
Ans: d) Position of the writer

39. Which One is not a category of Ethics as per modern Philosophy?
a) Metaethics
b) Normative ethics
c) Pro ethics
d) Applied ethics
Ans: C) Pro ethics

40. Which of the following must you use to access the Internet?
a) Taskbar
b) Notification Area
c) Microsoft Paint
d) Web Browser
Ans: d) Web Browser

41. _________Is not a good practice during presentation
a) Be formally dressed
b) Standing comfortably.
c) Relaxing your face
d) Speak in one tone
Ans: d) Speak in one tone

42. The Importance of No-Verbal communication is
a) Has no gender difference
b) Lengthens the message passed
c) Substitute the verbal message
d) Display less emotion in Message
Ans: c) Substitute the verbal message

43. Proxemics is
a) No invading others space
b) Nearness to the answer
c) Being approximate in answer
d) Communication using space
Ans: d) Communication using space

44. The three elements of presentation do not include?
a) Stock price Information
b) Corporate Governance
c) Audience Analysis
d) Organization Outlook
Ans: c) Audience Analysis

45. A copy of the agenda must be sent to the members along with the agenda of the meeting. The following points are necessary to keep in mind while drafting the agenda except one?
a) Agenda to be out of the scope of meeting
b) Agenda should be in a summary form.
c) Routine Agenda items should be put first
d) Agenda should be clear and explicit                                                                                                                                                                        Ans: a) Agenda to be out of the scope of meeting

46. The minutes of a meeting minutes are the official records of the proceedings of the meeting. They must contain the following information except one?
a) A list of those who did or apologies were received.
b) A list of name of those who attended the meeting.
c) A clear record of the decision reached/resolution
d Decision within the power of the committee
Ans: d) Decision within the power of the committee

47. __________ is an advantages of networking                                                                                                                                                        a) People can share information freely
b) Computer networking can be addictive.
c) Lack of policing on a computer network
d Disruptions can occur more frequently
Ans: a) People can share information freely

48. Only __________ is type of minutes
a) Brief Minutes
b) Minute of apologies
c) Minute of attendance
d) Minutes of Narration
Ans: d) Minutes of Narration

49. A resolution is
a) Short Sentence
b) Adopted Motion
c) An affirmation
d) A condition
Ans: d) Minutes of Narration

50. A circular issued by a business to its customers to notify or convey certain things or for their perusal is called
a) A customer Circular
b) A trade circular
c) A notice circular
d) A common circular
Ans: b) A trade circular

51. The following are the situations that need circulars to be sent but not
a) To persuade customers
b) Introduction of a new product
c) Opening of a new branch
d) When Increasing the price
Ans: a) To persuade customers

52. _______________is not a disadvantages of videoconferencing
a) Technology issues
b) Facility issues                                                                                                                                                                                                                     c) Eye contact
d) Reaches Everywhere
Ans: d) Reaches Everywhere

53. Which of the following is a component of Videoconferencing System
a) Cellular Phone
b) WhatsApp
c) Data transfer
d) Email address
Ans: c) Data transfer

54. ___________________ is called Spam
a) Unsolicited Message
b) Lengthy Email
c) Crowded inbox
d) Type of a virus
Ans: a) Unsolicited Message

55. Answering machine stored telecommunication voice messages are known as
a) Lead voice
b) Voicemail
c) Voice record
d) Tonal voice
Ans: b) Voicemail

56. The following are limitations of a computer except
a) Have Larger storage capacity
b) Requires a trained personnel
c) Cannot think on their own
d) Cannot learn by experience
Ans: a) Have Larger storage capacity

57. _______________A direct extension line from the main line of telephone system
a) intranet                                                                                                                                                                                                                               b) internet
c) Intercom
d) Network
Ans: c) Intercom

58. ___________is not the main objectives for using communication tools
a) Clarifying and condensing information
b) Avoiding long communication
c) Maintaining secrecy of information
d) Developing quality of the messages
Ans: b) Avoiding long communication

59. Courtesy is
a) Not vague and obscure use of Message
b) Use of familiar words, and short sentences
c) Avoiding needless filler words and phrases
d) Message use of Polite words and gestures
Ans: d) Message use of Polite words and gestures

60. Grapevine is also referred to as
a) Chain
b) Rumor
c) channel
d) Sender
Ans: b) Rumor

61. The diagonal communication has advantage of
a) Resolves interpersonal problems
b) Creates transparent environment
c) Softens rigid command structure
d) Request for various assistance
Ans: c) Softens the rigid command structure

62. ______________ is a limitation of formal communication.
a) Time-consuming
b) wrong gestures
c) Large audiences.
d) Unclear projection                                                                                                                                                                                                        Ans: a) Time-consuming

63. ______________ is not a forms Communications
a) Business communication
b) Written communication
c) Oral communication
d) Non-verbal communication
Ans: a) Business communication

64. The following are about capabilities of Social Media Apps, except
a) Symbol set
b) Rehearse ability
c)reprocess ability
d) The classification
Ans: d) The classification

65. Presenting someone else’s words or other creative product as your own is known as
a) Quoting
b) Plagiarism
c) Copying
d) Citing
Ans: b) Plagiarism

66. One among the following is not an ethical principle applied in making ethical choices across cultures
a) Actively seek mutual ground
b) Respect for cultural differences
c) Send messages to known people
d) Send messages that are honest
Ans: c) Send messages to known people

67. Effective intercultural communication starts with efforts to avoid
a) Stereotyping
b) Silence
c) Ambiguity
d) Clarity                                                                                                                                                                                                                              Ans: a) Stereotyping

68. A situation in which people receive more information than they can effectively process is
a) Over messaging
b) Over communicating
c) Information overload
d) Unethical Communication
Ans: c) Information overload

69. The transfer of information or power between two or more points that are not connected by an electrical
conductor is known as
a) Roaming transfer
b) Mobile Communication
c) Wireless communication
d) Digital communication
Ans: c) Wireless communication

70. One of the following is not an advantage of Wi Fi
a) Mobility
b) Interference
c) Expandability
d) Convenience
Ans: b) Interference

71. __________ Is not a social media website
a) Facebook
b) Twitter
c) LinkedIn
d) Telegram
Ans: d) Telegram

72. Which of the following is not a Content of a curriculum vitae – CV
a) Experience
b Career objectives                                                                                                                                                                                                                c) Personal details
d) Introduction
Ans: d) Introduction

73. Which of the following is not an objective of carrying out a meeting?
a) To understand the situation
b Get feedback from the members.
c) Resolve conflicts and confusions
d) To give warning letters to staff
Ans: d) To give warning letters to staff

74. Which of the following is a type of case study methodology?
a) Illustrative case study
b) Causal Case study.
c) Logical case study
d) Experimental case study
Ans: a) Illustrative case study

75. Which of the following is not a form of a letter presentation
a) Indented Form
b) Full Blocked Form
c) NOMA Form,
d) Memo Form
Ans: D) Memo Form

76. Voices possess certain characteristics. Which of the following is a characteristic of a voice?
a) Volume
b) Speed
c) Tone
d) Pitch
Ans: b) Speed

77. Which of the following highlights one of the major parts of a report
a) End Matters
b) Recommendations.                                                                                                                                                                                                           c) Conclusions
d) Title page
Ans: a) End Matters

78. The following are advantages of Intranet except one.
a) Increases productivity and efficiency level of employees
b) Cuts corporate communication cost up to 60 percent.
c) Downloading articles and other materials of our interest
d) Sending messages through internet across the globe                                                                                                                                          Ans: d) Sending messages through internet across the globe

79. Which of the following is not an unconscious body movement?
a) Biological
b) Habitual.
c) Cultural
d) Social
Ans: d) Social

80. Which of the following is not an example of gesture
a) Thumb and finger rub
b) Running Position
b) Hand to face.
d) Sitting position                                                                                                                                                                                                             Ans: b) Running Position

81. Non-verbal communication refers to the type of communication that
a) type of communication that uses words
b) communication which occurs with the help of words
c) type of communication that does not use words
d) type of communication that has no personal bias                                                                                                                                                Ans: c) type of communication that does not use words

82. _________ is not a disadvantage of oral communication
a) It allows instantaneous feedback:
b) More prone to physical noise
c) Inappropriate for controversial matters
d) Serious deliberation is not possible
Ans: a) It allows instantaneous feedback

83. Which of the following is not part of introduction section of a report
a) Definitions of terms and symbols,
b) Findings of the report study
c) Authorization and terms of reference
d) Historical and technical background
Ans: b) Findings of the study

84. ________is a characteristic of a good press release
a) Should not be suitable for publication
b) For getting feedback from the members.
c) The release should be brief and precise
d) The release should not be factually true
Ans: c) The release should be brief and precise

85. The frequent causes of problems in Information Technology – IT projects is not about
a) Customer change of Project scope
b) Poor communication with customer
c) Making a thorough reference check
d) Customer failure to reveal information
Ans: C) Making a thorough reference check

86. An infringement that involves making copies of software which one is not entitled is known as
a) Software Piracy
b) Downloading
c) Software conflict
d) Copyrighting
Ans: a) Software Piracy

87. Ethical challenges facing the tech industry does not include the following?
a) Ownership of customer data
b) Privacy of customer information
c) The Customer Data insecurity
d) The accuracy and controls
Ans: c) The Customer Data insecurity

88. _________ is not an approach to resolve ethical dilemmas
a) Refuting the dilemma logically at times
b) Alternatives offering greater good or lesser evil.
c) Finding alternative solutions for problems
d) Punishing the parties on the wrong
Ans: d) Punishing the parties on the wrong

89. The following are ways in which we can protect data integrity except?
a) Not Archiving data
b) Business continuity
c) Being Accurate
d) Changing controls
Ans: a) Not Archiving data

90. _________ the act of fraudulently using email to try to get the recipient to reveal personal data
a) Worms
b) Trojan Horses
c) Phishing                                                                                                                                                                                                                                d) Rootkit
Ans: c) Phishing

91. One method used to reduce the potential for attacks from computer virus is
a) Undertake to educate their customers
b) Perform a thorough background check
c) Bring your own computer when working
d) increasing software Complexity frequently
Ans: b) Perform a thorough background check

92. Efforts directed toward the efficient design, manufacture, operation, and disposal of IT-related products is
known as
a) Computer Dumping
b) Computer disposal
c) Telecommuting
d) Green Computing
Ans: d) Green Computing

93. _________ the harassment, torment, humiliation, or threatening of one minor by another or group of minors via the Internet or cell phone
a) Cyberbullying
b) cybersquat
c) Smishing
d) Cyberstalking
Ans: a) Cyberbullying

94. An agreement that prohibits an employee from working for any competitors for a period of time is known as
a) A privacy agreement
b) A noncompete agreement
c) A reasonable assurance
d) A security policy
Ans: b) A noncompete agreement

95. Choose the action that has the best overall consequences for all people who are directly or indirectly affected is
a) Benefit approach
b) Virtue Approach                                                                                                                                                                                                                  c) Utilitarian approach
d) Right approach
Ans: c) Utilitarian approach

96. _________ is a method within the development cycle designed to guarantee reliable operation of an Information Technology product
a) System safety
b) Capability Maturity
c) Quality Assurance
d) Effects analysis
Ans: c) Quality Assurance

97. Which of the following entails an ethical practice in technology?
a) The moral use of data and resources
b) Disrespecting employees and customers
c) Not having a culture of responsibility
d) A disruptive technology irresponsibly
Ans: a) Moral use of data and resources

98. ———— is an agreement between two or more parties that forbids the unauthorized release of sensitive information.                    a) Binding Contract
b) Non-Disclosure agreement
c) Cognitive Contract
d) Code of Ethics
Ans: b) Non-Disclosure agreement

99. Importance of ethical issues in Information Technology include the following except one?
a) Information Misuse
b) The Misinformation
c) Lack of Oversight
d) using New technology
Ans: d) Using new technology

100.The use of illegal means to obtain business information is
a) Industrial espionage
b) Competitive intelligence                                                                                                                                                                                                  c) Software intelligence
d) Patent infringement                                                                                                                                                                                                    Ans: a) Industrial espionage