April 8, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE This paper consists of TWO sections A and B. Answer ALL questions in sections A and B in the answer booklet provided. Marks for each question are indicated in brackets. Do not write on this question paper. Answer the questions in English.   This paper consists of FOUR (4) printed pages.   Candidate should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.   SECTION A (10 MARKS)  Answer all questions, each question carries 1 mark 1. Among the following, choose the safest method of disposing nuclear waste. A. Use it as nuclear fuel B. Sell it to other countries C. Dump it in landfills D. Store and monitor the waste   2. ________________ is the primary benefit of wetlands. A. Promoting floods B. Filtering of water before it enters lakes, streams, rivers, or oceans C. Keeping the number of undesirable plants and animals low D. Providing good sites for landfills   3. Which one of the following is a greenhouse gas? A. Sulphur dioxide B. Oxygen C. Methane D. Nitrogen   4. Which one of the following international Conventions addresses specifically hazardous wastes? A. Vienna Convention B. Montreal convention C. Basel convention D. Stockholm convention   5. _____________ is not a basic reason for the depletion of natural resources in Kenya. A. Global warming B. Rapid population increase C. High consumption of resources D. Pollution and land deterioration   6. Which one of the following cause most challenges in urban pollution in Kenya? A. Industrial gases B. Pollution caused by Solid wastes C. Pollution caused by wastes without weight D. Pollution caused by liquid wastes   7. ______________ is the name given to the method by which solid waste is dumped in low-lying areas and then covered with earth. A. Open dumping B. Sanitary land filling C. Incineration D. Composting   8. Select from the following the correct statement regarding natural resources. A. Cannot be exhausted B. They cannot be recycled C. Non-renewable resources include air and water D. Limited in availability   9. Which one of the following gases is likely to be reduced in the atmosphere by deforestation? A. Nitrogen B. Oxygen C. Carbon dioxide D. Sulphur dioxide   10. In November 2021, there was the COP26 held in Stockholm to address the Global warming, what does the initial COP stand for? A. Coefficient of Pollution B. Coalition of Parties C. Convention of People D. Conference of Parties   SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section 11. State four principles of waste minimization in production process. (4 marks) 12. Outline four requirements expected of a person granted a license to transport waste. (4 marks) 13. Explain four characteristics of hazardous waste. (4 marks) 14. State four types of bio-medical wastes and their methods of disposal. (4 marks) 15. Identify four hazards found in a workshop.             (4 marks) 16. Outline four steps in waste management cycle. (4 marks) 17. State the correct order of solid waste management starting with the most preferred. (4 marks) 18. Highlight four benefits of recycling E-wastes.                                                             (4 marks) 19. State four types of land use activities that must be subject to Environmental Impact Assessment (E.I.A) and zoning. (4 marks) 20. List four components of environmental systems. (4 marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE This paper consists of TWO sections A and B. Answer ALL questions in sections A and B in the answer booklet provided. Marks for each question are indicated in brackets. Do not write on this question paper. Answer the questions in English.   This paper consists of SIX (6) printed pages. Candidate should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.   SECTION A (20 MARKS) For question 1 to 10, indicate whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE. Each question carries one mark. 1. Chlorofluorocarbons are chemicals that damage ozone layer. A. True B. False   2. Global warming is caused by gases such as Carbon monoxide. A. True B. False   3. Landfills are engineered for liquid waste. A. True B. False   4. National Environmental Management Authority (NEMA) Kenya is responsible for environmental protection. A. True B. False   5. Corrosivity is a characteristic of hazardous waste. A. True B. False   6. Leachate from solid waste disposal is a major source of groundwater pollution. A. True B. False   7. Cars cause indoor air pollution. A. True B. False   8. Carbon dioxide and Sulphur dioxide are examples of secondary air pollutants. A. True B. False   9. Vibration is an example of physical hazards. A. True B. False   9. Biomass is a renewable source of energy. A. True B. False   For question 11 to 20, choose the correct answer from the choices given. Each question carries one mark. 11. Which one of the following type of timber extraction is least damaging to the environment? A. Clear felling B. Mechanized logging. C. Reduced impact logging D. Hand logging   12. Which one of the following is an adverse effect of modern agriculture? A. Water scarcity B. Water pollution C. Water logging D. Water use   13. Which one of the following is a disadvantage of the renewable energy sources? A. Highly polluting B. unreliable supply C. High waste Disposal cost D. high Running cost   14. Out of the following nutrients in fertilizer, which one causes minimum water pollution? A. Nitrogen B. Phosphorus C. Potassium D. Organic matter   15. Which one of the following strategies should be given first preference in plastic waste management? A. Recycle B. Reuse C. Reduce the usage D. None of the above   16. Which one of the following is hazardous waste? A. Food waste B. Animal waste C. Acid spills D. Old furniture   17. You are to clean a dumpsite for solid waste, which one of the following is a personal protective equipment (PPE) worn for the task? A. Leather gloves B. Surgical gloves C. Head cap D. Blue black goggles   18. _______________ is not a problem associated with population growth. A. increased resource consumption B. food and energy shortage C. environmental pollution D. sustainable resource use   19. Reduction in the usage of fossil fuels can be brought about by the following except? A. using alternative energy source B. changing lifestyle C. reducing car taxes D. encouraging the use of mass transport system such as buses and railways   20. Which one of the following is a hazardous waste? A. Food waste B. Animal waste C. Acid spills D. Old furniture   SECTION B (30 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section 21. Highlight three functions of natural environment.                  (3 marks) 22. List two environmental effects of deforestation.                              (2 marks) 23. Enumerate four methods of preventing soil erosion.                  (4 marks) 24. State three ways of reducing water wastage.                  (3 marks) 25. Identify three environmental problems associated with chemical fertilizers. (3 marks) 26. Name three biological hazards.                  (3 marks) 27. List three examples of domestic waste.                  (3 marks) 28. State three benefits of recycling waste.                  (3 marks) 29. Differentiate between deforestation and forest degradation.                  (4 marks) 30. State two importance of reusing waste water.                  (2 marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES This paper has three sections A, B and C. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. Marks for each question are indicated in brackets. Do not write on this question paper. Write your answers in the answer booklet provided. Answer the questions in English.   This paper consists of SEVEN (7) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.   SECTION A (20 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section 1. The following are the components of a feasibility study except A. Practicality B. Marketing C. Viability D. Profitability of business   2. The following are purposes of an agri-enterprise business plan except A. To secure financing B. To outline business goals and strategies C. To identify potential markets D. To determine the profitability of an agri-enterprise   3. Cash flow projection refers to A. A projection of revenue and expenses over a specific period B. A projection of market demand for a specific crop C. projection of soil fertility for a specific field D. A projection of labour requirements for a specific tasks   4. Which one of the following can an entrepreneur ensure in writing a business plan A. Evaluate the feasibility of the business: B. Meets his target revenue goals C. Achieve his expense projection D. Meets his loss   5. Which one of the following is a source of capital to start and run a business? A. Embezzlement of funds B. Charity C. Loans from financial institutions D. Employment   6. Which equation is True. A. Assets = Capital + Liabilities B. Liabilities = Capital – Assets C. Capital = Liabilities + Assets D. Asset = Capital- Liability   7. The determinant of market selection is A. Market trends B. Government policies C. Firm related factors D. Literacy levels   8. A feasibility study includes A. Single solution B. Alternative solution C. A statement of the problems D. Financial statement   9. Which one of the following is a component of the 4Ps of marketing? A. Price B. Preference C. People D. Parameters   10. The following are basis of a target market except A. Age B. Gender C. Income D. Feasibility   11.___________________ is evident when the entrepreneur tries to mislead the investor. A. Knowledge and experience B. Lack of openness and honesty C. Lack of financial planning D. Commitment of the entrepreneur   12. The test for marketability could be divided into the following four categories: A. Products, services, needs and wants B. Industries, organizations, Agri-preneur and staff C. Budgeting, cost control, credit management and managing debtors D. Customers, competitors, suppliers and marketing of products and services   13. PESTLE stands for? A. Political, environmental, technological, legal, and environmental B. Political, environmental, shareholding, technological, logistical, and e-marketing C. Political, environmental, social, technological, legal, and environmental D. Political, environmental, societal, technological, learning, and e-marketing   14. The purpose of marketing strategy in an agri-enterprise business plan is A. To identify the target market for the agricultural products or services B. To determine the cost of production for the agricultural products or services C. To develop a plan for managing the firm’s resources D. To conduct a risk assessment for the agricultural products or services   15. Choose the correct definition of evaluation. A. The process of monitoring goods and services within an enterprise. B. The process of scouting and collecting views on the services provided. C. The act of conducting a survey within a given enterprise. D. The process of judging or calculating the quality, importance, amount, or value of something   16. Which one of the following does not affect the success of an enterprise? A. Decrease in disposable income B. High unemployment rates C. Trade restrictions D. Inflation rates   17. The process of dividing a target market is called A. Market segmentation B. Industry analysis C. Marketing plan D. Market analysis   18. Choose the strategy which helps in understanding competitors marketing strategy. A. Market analysis B. Competitor’s analysis C. Growth plan D. Marketing growth   19. The purpose of an operational plan in an agri-enterprise business plan is A. To provide an overview of the farm’s marketing strategy B. To describe the farm’s production process and activities C. To outline the farm’s financial projections D. To evaluate the environmental impact of the farm’s activities   20. Which of the following financial statements is not included in an agri-enterprise business plan? A. Income statement B. Balance sheet C. Profit and loss account D. Statement of cash flows   SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer ALL questions in this section 21. Define the term Business strategy.                                                          (2marks) 22. State Five actors in the agricultural value chain.                 (5marks) 23. Outline the stages of Product Life Cycle.                (4 marks) 24. List Four types accounting documents.  (4marks) 25. State Five components of an accounting formula.                               (5Marks) 26. Highlight the advantages of primary data and secondary data.  (6marks) 27. List Four sources of information used when preparing an Agri-enterprise business plan. (4marks) 28. Mention Fives management roles in an Agri enterprise.                            (5marks) 29. State Five benefits of staff motivation.                            (5marks)   SECTION C: (40 MARKS) Answer any TWO questions from this section 30. (a) Explain Five functions of wholesalers in the Agri-enterprise value chain. (10 marks) (b) Outline the stages in Agricultural value chain.                                                (10 marks) 31. (a) Explain factors considered when conducting a feasibility study of an agribusiness. (10 marks) (b) Explain the components of a business plan.                                                    (10 marks) 32. (a) Define SWOT analysis as used in strategic planning.                                     (2 marks) (b) Describe the SWOT analysis.                                                                          (8 marks) (c) Explain the benefits of SWOT analysis.                                                          (10 marks)