April 15, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.The paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. 2.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 3.Do not write on the question paper. 4.A separate answer booklet will be provided. This paper consists of 7 printed pages Candidate should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.   SECTION A: (20 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. 1. Which of the following is not a part of the operating system? (1 Mark) A. Input/output control program B. Job control program C. Supervisor D. Performance monitor 2. An operating system that reads and reacts in terms of actual time is known as__(1 Mark) A. Real time system B. Time sharing system C. Quick response system D. Batch system 3. Which of the following is not an operating system? (1 Mark) A. UNIX B. MS-DOS C. CP/M D. PASCAL 4. What is the name of the operating system that reads and reacts in terms of actual time A. Real time system B. Time sharing system C. Quick response system D. Batch system 5. Context switching is part of (1 Mark) A. Interrupt servicing B. Interrupt handling C. Polling D. Spooling 6. Under the normal mode of operation, identify the right sequence through which a process may utilize a resource (1 Mark) A. Request – Use – Release B. Request – Hold – Use – Release C. Hold – Use – Release D. Request – Hold – Release 7. Which of the following is an example of a spooled device (1 Mark) A. A graphic display device B. A line printer used to print the output of a number of jobs C. A secondary storage device in a virtual memory system D. A terminal used to enter input data to a running program 8. What are the TWO basic types of operating systems (1 Mark) A. Batch and interactive B. Sequential and real time C. Batch and time share D. Sequential and direct 9. In disk operations, rotational latency refers to_____ (1 Mark) A. The time required to move the disk arm to the required track. B. The amount of time required for the desired sector to rotate around and come under the read-write head. C. The time required to move the data electronically from the disk to the computer D. The time required to move the heads from one cylinder to another, and for the heads to settle down after the move. 10. _______ are the functions used to modify the value of semaphore (1 Mark) A. Wait () and Run () B. Signal () and Exit () C. Wait () and Exit () D. Wait () and signal () 11. The allocation of processors by process management is known as________ (1 Mark) A. Managing B. Processing C. Planning D. Scheduling 12. A set of extended instructions providing an interface between the Operating System and the user programs is called a (1 Mark) A. Machine call B. System call C. Instruction calls D. Service call 13. An operating system fence registers is used for (1 Mark) A. Disk protection B. CPU protection C. Memory protection D. File protection 14. Which of the following is a single-user operating system (1 Mark) A. Windows B. MAC C. Ms-DOS D. Linux 15. The size of virtual memory is based on which of the following (1 Mark) A. CPU B. RAM C. Address bus D. Data bus 16. _______ is a file that contains a list of file names and other information related to these files (1 Mark) A. Ordinary file B. Special file C. Directory file D. System file 17. ______is the page number that is not found in the translation lookaside buffer (1 Mark) A. Translation Lookaside Buffer miss B. Buffer miss C. Translation Lookaside Buffer hit D. Cache hit 18. Highlight one set of the types of addresses used in a program before and after memory is allocated (1 Mark) A. Symbolic addresses, Relative addresses, Page Address B. Page Address, Physical addresses, Symbolic addresses C. Symbolic addresses, Physical addresses, Relative addresses. D. Physical addresses, Relative addresses, Page Address 19. Which of the following statements best describes physical disk formatting (1 Mark) A. Low level formatting is done by the end users B. Disk must not be formatted before storing data C. Low level formatting files the disk with a special data structure for each sector. D. Deleting everything in the disk. 20. From the statements below, choose a key limitation of Batch Operating System. (1 Mark) A. CPU is often idle, because the speed of the mechanical I/O devices is slower than the CPU. B. Frequent interaction between the user and the job. C. It is easy to provide the desired priority. D. Jobs with similar needs are batched together and run as a group   SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. 21. Define the following terms as used in operating systems. a) Kernel. (2 Marks) b) Time sharing (2 Marks) c) Multiprocessor (2 Marks) 22. Highlight TWO advantages of multiprogramming. (2 Marks) 23. Distinguish between hard and soft copy real time system. (4 Marks) 24. Differentiate between contiguous and non-contiguous memory allocation techniques. (4 Marks) 25. State TWO disadvantages of paging in memory management. (2 Marks) 26. Outline TWO advantages of virtual approach to system design. (2 Marks) 27. Highlight FOUR conditions to hold to have good solution to race condition. (4 Marks) 28. Describe FOUR conditions that must hold true for a deadlock to occur. (4 Marks) 29. State FOUR Circumstances under which a running process can be terminated by an operating system (4 Marks) 30. Differentiate between multi-tasking and multiprogramming. (4 Marks) 31. State TWO functions of the computer clock. (2 Marks) 32. Memory fragmentation is not popular with the modern operating systems. Outline TWO limitations that could be aiding this trend. (2 Marks)   SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer any TWO questions are attempted. 33.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has THREE sections A, B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are as indicated. 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of 8 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (20 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries 1 mark. 1. Which statement below correctly defines a database A. A collections of data B. A collection of data stored in a structured format C. A software used to store data D. A system software used to search and store data 2. The following is a list of database models except A. Sequential B. Network C. Relational D. Hierarchical 3. Identify the statement that correctly describes referential integrity in a database relation A. The ability of database to refer to external data source B. The ability to ensure data consistency and maintain relationships between table C. The ability of the database to be secure and available for data D. The ability at query data from respective tables simultaneously. 4. Carrying out database auditing is necessary because? A. It helps perform regular data back up from the database B. It aids in implementing organization policies C. It secures physical database servers D. It helps to monitor and record database activities for security and compliance. 5. The process of removing redundancy from a database is called A. Normalization B. Compilation C. Modelling D. Macros 6. Which of the following object is used to store and organize data in a structured format A. Table B. View C. Index D. Trigger 7. A software which provides a platform for other software’s to run on is known as ______ A. Application software; B. System software; C. Utility software; D. Firmware. 8. _________ is a database object used to enforced referential integrity between related tables. A. View B. tired procedure C. Index D. Trigger 9. State the key benefit of implementing software configuration A. Increase software development time B. Enhance software security C. Reduce software functionality D. Limit software scalability. 10. A database model that represents data as a collection of objects, each with its own properties and behaviors is A. Object-oriented model B. Relational model C. Hierarchical model D. Network model 11. The primary objective of database testing is to ___________. A. Ensure data availability B. Ensure data security C. Ensure data integrity D. Ensure data accuracy 12. Highlight the correct list of data types in MS Access A. OLE, Text, Autonumber. B. Memo, Sring, Currency C. Hyperlink, Number, lookup wizard D. Lookup, Text, OLE 13. Which of the following is NOT a step in the database design process A. Conceptual design B. Logical design C. Physical design D. Implementation 14. What database operation is used to add new records on a table A. Insert B. Update C. Select D. Delete 15. In a one-to-many relationship, where should the foreign key be placed A. In the table that has the “one” side of the relationship B. In the table that has the “many” side of the relationship C. In a separate junction table D. In both tables, as a composite key 16. ______is a database operation that is used to retrieve specific records from a table based on certain conditions A. Insert B. Update C. Select D. Delete 17. Which of the following is not a type of MS access data object? A. Table B. Form C. Modules D. worksheet 18. How can you define a field so that when you are entering data #### is displayed A. Validation rule B. Input mask C. Indexed D. IME mode 19. A database operation used to change the structure of a table, such as adding or removing columns A. Alter B. Rename C. Truncate D. Drop 20. Which design phase involves determining the storage structures, indexing, and access methods? A. Conceptual design B. Logical design C. Physical design D. Implementation SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. 21. A database has many components, Describe any TWO such components. (4 Marks) 22. John, an ICT student studying database MS access wanted to enter data in MS Access database. Outline THREE ways he may achieve his goal. (3 Marks) 23. Using MS Access query language, describe how a multi-join query can be achieved. (4 Marks) 24. The figure below shows icons found on the standard toolbar of a MS Access Describe the functions of the two icons shown’ (4 Marks) 25. Distinguish between schema and instances as used in database management system. (4 Marks) 26. Outline THREE benefits of macros in a MS Access. (3 Marks) 27. Differentiate between bound and unbound controls as used in Microsoft Access. (4 Marks) 28. Khainga, a database designer opted to use conceptual modeling to design a database. Highlight FOUR advantages of this model (4 Marks) 29. John has been advised to use database management system to store students’ Marks. State FOUR disadvantages of a database management system. (4 Marks) 30. Differentiate between attribute and entity as used in database management system. (4 Marks) 31. Explain the term data replication as used in database. (2 Marks) SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer TWO questions in this section. 32. a) A company in Nairobi has opted to use database in managing their data. Explain THREE benefits the database system would serve to the company. (6 Marks) b) Vilani was planning to acquire a database management system for his company. Describe FOUR factors he should consider before doing the purchase. (8 Marks) c) Describe THREE forms of normalization in a database. (6 Marks) 33. a) Koech, a database administrator, realized that their company database experienced a system failure. i. Describe TWO data recovery techniques the company used to recover their data (4 Marks) ii. During the recovery process they experienced logical and system error. Differentiate between the TWO types of errors

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. This paper has three sections A, B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are as indicated. 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of 8 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A (20 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries one Mark 1. When troubleshooting a computer that is not powering on, which tool is used to test the power supply? (1 Mark) A. Multimeter B. Cable tester C. Loopback plug D. Heat sink 2. Which of the following is the correct order to be followed when disassemble computer parts. (1 Mark) A. Remove screws, disconnect cables, gently separate components B. Disconnect cables, remove screws, gently deterge components C. Gently separate components, remove screws, disconnect cables D. Disconnect cables, gently separate components, remove screws 3. To prevent accidental electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage to computer components, technicians should use (1 Mark) A. Rubber gloves B. Surge protectors C. Anti-static wrist straps D. Circuit testers 4. Which tool is used to remove and install expansion cards in a computer such as graphics cards or sound cards (1 Mark) A. Pliers B. Cable tester C. Anti-static wrist strap D. Screwdriver 5. A maintenance technique that aims to optimize maintenance activities based on cost, risk, and performance factors is__________________ .(1 Mark) A. Risk-based maintenance B. Corrective maintenance C. Preventive maintenance D. Reactive maintenance 6. The first step to take when repairing a faulty computer is (1 Mark) A. Identify the cause of the fault B. Consult the equipment manual C. Gather the necessary tools and materials D. Disconnect the power source 7. ___________should be done after repairing or replacing a faulty component and confirming its functionality. (1 Mark) A. Reassemble the equipment B. Documenting the repair process C. Clean the entire system D. Skip the testing phase 8. How can you determine if a repaired or replaced component is working correctly(1 Mark) A. Perform a functionality test B. Inspect for any physical damage C. Consult an expert technician D. Compare it with the original component 9. Which component fault result in to overheating of a computer. (1 Mark) A. Monitor B. Heat sink C. Power Supply D. Temperature sensor 10. Peter was disassembling a client computer, what would he do with the removed screws and small parts during disassembly (1 Mark) A. Keep them in a labeled container B. Discard them immediately C. Place them on a nearby surface D. Store them in a plastic bag 11. It’s always advisable to carry out system back up during system upgrades. What is the purpose of backing up data before performing software or hardware upgrades(1 Mark) A. To prevent data loss during the upgrade process B. To improve system compatibility with the upgrade C. To reduce the time required for the upgrade D. To analyze the data for potential performance issues 12. How can documentation help in troubleshooting ? (1 Mark) A. It serves as a troubleshooting tool itself B. It provides a record of previous issues and solutions C. It helps to create a backup of the system D. It is not relevant to the troubleshooting process 13. The purpose of stress testing a computer and its component is (1 Mark) A. To analyze the power consumption B. To determine the physical dimensions C. To check the network connectivity D. To evaluate its stability under heavy workloads 14. Mr. X took his personal computer to computer dealers for an upgrade, the technician did benchmark before and after a hardware upgrading. What was the purpose of doing benchmarking (1 Mark) A. To determine the cost-effectiveness of the upgrade B. To test the stability of the hardware components C. To compare the performance of the hardware before and after the upgrade D. To analyze the compatibility of the hardware with the system 15. Computer output and inputs is control by (1 Mark) A. BIOS B. CMOS C. VGA D. RAM 16. The following steps ensure a smooth transition during software and hardware upgrades except? (1 Mark) A. Perform compatibility testing beforehand B. Follow proper installation procedures C. Monitor the upgrade process for any errors or issues D. Discard the old components before the upgrade 17. The purpose of asking the user about recent changes or actions before the problem occurred during troubleshooting helps to____ (1 Mark) A. Identify potential causes or triggers B. Blame the user for the issue C. Gather feedback on the system’s performance D. Skip the troubleshooting process 18. The following are computer buses, which one is not. (1 Mark) A. Network bus B. Data bus C. Address bus D. Control bus 19. Alice is performing a software upgrade, what would she do with any existing licenses or product keys? (1 Mark) A. Deactivate them before the upgrade B. Upgrade them to a higher version C. Transfer them to another system D. Discard them after the upgrade 20. Which software tool can be used to test the performance and stability of a computer’s processor? (1 Mark) A. Prime95 B. Disk Defragmenter C. Task Manager D. Internet Speed Test SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. 21. Outline FOUR importance of having the right tools during computer repair and maintenance. (4 Marks) 22. Describe FOUR routine maintenance task that should be performed regularly to ensure optimal computer performance (4 Marks) 23. State FIVE common problems that can be encountered during troubleshooting a computer system that would make one panic. (5 Marks) 24. Testing a computer’s cooling system is crucial for maintaining optimal performance. Discuss the importance of testing a computer’s cooling system. (3 Marks) 25. Repairing a malfunctioning keyboard can vary depending on the specific issue. Outline the steps involved in repairing it. (2 Marks) 26. Tony a computer technician needs to clean a client’s computer. Highlight FOUR tools that he can

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATE. 1.This paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. 2.Answer questions as per instructions in each section. 3.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. This paper consists of SEVEN (7) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A (20 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. 1. _______is the maximum header size of an IP packet. (1 Mark) A. 32 bytes B. 64 bytes C. 30 bytes D. 60 bytes 2. Bridge works in__________ layer of the OSI model (1 Mark) A. Application layer B. Transport layer C. Network layer D. Datalink layer 3. How many layers are in the TCP/IP model (1 Mark) A. 4 layers B. 5 layers C. 6 layers D. 7 layers 4. The Internet is an example of ______. (1 Mark) A. Cell switched network B. Circuit switched network C. Packet switched network D. Operating system resource 5. _____________ is defined as sub-netting. (1 Mark) A. Dividing one large network into several smaller ones B. Dividing network into network classes C. Speeding up the speed of network D. Controlling network. 6. Repeater operates in_______ of the OSI model (1 Mark) A. Physical layer B. Data link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer 7. Highlight the tool that is used to capture and analyze network traffic (1 Mark) A. Ping B. Traceroute C. Netstat D. Wireshark 8. MAC Address is comprised of ________bits. (1 Mark) A. 16 B. 32 C. 48 D. 64 9. Which type of testing helps to identify vulnerabilities in network security (1 Mark) A. Penetration testing B. Bandwidth testing C. Packet analysis D. Port scanning 10. The network service that allows multiple devices in a LAN network to share a single public IP address is referred to (1 Mark) A. NAT (Network Address Translation) B. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) C. DNS (Domain Name System) D. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) 11. What is the method used to broadcast two packets on a medium at a time. (1 Mark) A. Collision B. Synchronous C. Asynchronous D. Multicast 12. State the medium that is used to carry data in a computer network that is exposed to electrical interferences (1 Mark) A. Unshielded twisted pair B. Optical fiber C. Coaxial cable D. Microwaves 13. Which network topology requires more cabling as the number of devices increases? (1 Mark) A. Bus topology B. Ring topology C. Star topology D. Mesh topology 14. The loopback IP address for IPv4 is ___________. (1 Mark) A. 127.0.0.1 B. 192.168.1.1 C. 10.0.0.1 D. 172.16.0.1 15. The outer layer of a coaxial cable is typically made of ________. (1 Mark) A. Copper B. Aluminum C. Plastic D. Glass 16. How many pins does RJ-45 contain? (1 Mark) A. Two B. Four C. Eight D. Ten 17. Given an IP address of 192.168.1.10 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240, ______ is the broadcast address for the subnet. (1 Mark) A. 192.168.1.255 B. 192.168.1.128 C. 192.168.1.100 D. 192.168.1.0 18. _____topology requires a central controller in the network. (1 Mark) A. Star B. Mesh C. Ring D. Bus 19. DNS is the abbreviation of__________. (1 Mark) A. Dynamic Name System B. Dynamic Network System C. Domain Name System D. Domain Network Service 20. The tool used for security testing and identifying vulnerabilities in web applications is called (1 Mark) A. Burp Suite B. TestNG C. LoadRunner D. JIRA   SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer All questions in this section. 21. Outline FOUR factors that affect the performance of a computer network. (4 Marks) 22. A firewall plays an important role in network security. Highlight FOUR types of firewalls. (4 Marks) 23. State THREE factors that are required to consider when designing a transmission medium. (3 Marks) 24. Enumerate at least THREE elements of a computer network. (3 Marks) 25. Distinguish between bandwidth and latency as applied in computer networking. (4 Marks) 26. State FOUR benefits of a networked environment. (4 Marks) 27. Highlight FOUR types of Virtual Private Network (VPN). (4 Marks) 28. Identify FOUR properties that a secure network should possess. (4 Marks) 29. Define the following terms as used in networking: a) Bit error rate. (2 Marks) b) Attenuation. (2 Marks) c) Unicast address. (2 Marks) 30. Outline FOUR tools used during a network installation. (4 Marks)   SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer two questions in this section. 31. a) OSI model is used to standardize the communication functions of a networked environment, Describe the SEVEN layers of the OSI model (14 Marks) b) Isaac a trainer of perform computer networking was teaching his class on protocols. In the course of the class, he talked about Transfer Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP). Outline THREE characteristics of the two protocols. (6 Marks) 32. a) Ken was employed to install a computer network for company ABC, After the installation, he was required to carry out user training. Explain FIVE reasons for carrying out training after network installation. (10 Marks) b) Mr. James was employed as a network administrator in KPLC company, that was upgrading their network systems. Describe FIVE ways he could use to prevent network intrusion in the company. (10 Marks) 33. a) The county government of Busia is intending to install a computer network to the newly constructed Governor’s office. Explain FIVE network devices they could use to have the office networked. (10 Marks) b) List FOUR characteristics of a Wide Area Network (WAN). (4 Marks) c) With the aid of a diagram, illustrate each of the following physical computer network topologies. i. Mesh. (3 Marks) ii. Ring. (3 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.Marks for each question are indicated in brackets () 2.This paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C 3.You are required to provide your responses in the provided answer booklet. 4.Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of SEVEN (7) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (20 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries one Mark. 1. The deviation of resistance of a resistor is known as A. Inductance B. Resistivity C. Tolerance D. Ohms 2. An electrical component use to store electrical charge is A. Charger B. Adaptor C. Capacitor D. Logic gate 3. Copper and aluminum are examples of A. Conductors B. Insulators C. Semi-conductors D. Electricity 4. When a Semi-Conductor material is heated, it’s resistance______ A. Decreases B. Increases C. Does not change D. Increase then Decreases 5. In which form does an inductor store energy A. Electric B. Electro-magnetic C. Magnetic D. Permittivity 6. The rate of change of energy is measured in A. Joules B. Henry C. Voltage D. Wattage 7. An electrical instrument used to measure the amount of current in an electrical circuit is called A. Amperes B. Potential difference C. Ammeter D. Coulombs. 8. Which of the following is not a property of a wave. A. Power B. Period A. Frequency C. Amplitude 9. The dielectric material used in a capacitor increases it’s________ A. Permittivity B. Capacitance C. Farad D. Permeability 10. Which of the following types of memory is used for cache memory A. SDRAM B. DRAM C. SRAM D. CRAM 11. During a apply basic electronic practical class, a trainee was handed the component shown below. Identify the component. A. Fixed Resistor B. Fixed Inductor C. Variable Resistor D. Fixed Inductor 12. Which of the following statement correctly describes characteristic of a valence electron A. They are highly mobile electrons B. They do not take part in bonding C. They exist in any electron shell in an atom D. They determine the physical characteristics of an atom 13. In modern computing, a packed BCD is preferred over unpacked BCD. What is the main reason for this preference A. Packed BCD is memory efficient B. Packed BCD is easily understood by computer C. Unpacked BCD is outdated D. Unpacked BCD is ambiguous 14. A single transistor is used to implement _______ gate. A. NAND B. OR C. NOR D. NOT 15. Electrical quantities whose value varies in non-continuous manner are referred to as A. Analogous B. Encapsulation C. Digital D. Frequencies 16. A capacitor is constructed using how many plates A. 1. B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 17. Name the instrument shown below: A. Ohmmeter B. Potentiometer C. Digital meter D. Voltmeter 18. Which of the following is the odd one out A. RAM B. ROM C. Cache D. Flash disk 19. The total number of electrons in an atom is known as A. Atomic radius B. Atomic number C. Atomic size D. Atomic weight 20. Which of the following is an active electrical component A. Transistor B. Capacitor C. Inductor D. Resistor SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. 21. The measure of how difficult is it for current to pass through a material is known as resistance and it’s affected by many factors. List FOUR such factors. (4 Marks) 22. RAM and ROM are primary memories of a computer. Outline FOUR differences between the two. (4 Marks) 23. Describe TWO types of biasing techniques used in a p-n junction. (4 Marks) 24. Draw a truth table of a NAND gate with two input variables. (3 Marks) 25. In number presentation, hexadecimal numbers are not preferably used. List THREE disadvantages of the hexadecimal numbers. (3 Marks) 26. The figure below shows a closed circuit of three inductors L1, L2 and L3 of 0.5H, 1H and 2H respectively Use it to answer the questions below. a) Determine the equivalent inductance in the circuit (4 Marks) b) Describe the flow of current in L1and L3. (2 Mark) 27. Evaluate the following arithmetic giving your answer in binary: 1528-678 (3 Marks) 28. Determine current in a closed circuit having two resisters connected in series of values 10Ω and 15Ω respectively with an EMF of 4.5V. (4 Marks) 29. DVDs are gaining popularity more than CD-ROM’s’, list FOUR advantages of a DVD over CD-ROM. (4 Marks) 30. State Ohm’s Law. (2 Marks) 31. List THREE factors that could necessitate the use of inductors in a circuit. (3 Marks) SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer any TWO questions in this section. 32. a) Differentiate between power and energy as used in electronics. (4 Marks) b) Determine the decimal equivalent of each of the following number system. i. FC716 (3 Marks) ii. 1010 11012 (3 Marks) c) Determine resistance of a resistor having color code given below i. Green, violet, white and gold. (2 Marks) ii. Yellow violet and silver (2 Mark) d) Explain THREE circumstances under which 2’s complement is used in computer (6 Marks) 33. a) Integrated Circuits are used commonly when developing electronic circuits, Explain THREE benefits of Integrated Circuits. (6 Marks) b) With the aid of a diagram, describe the computer memory hierarchy (6 Marks) c) During apply Basic electronic lesson the students were required to contract a simple electronic circuit, describe the FOUR components they will use (8 Marks) 34. a) Differentiate between doped semiconductors and un-doped semiconductors. (4 Marks) b) Discuss any SIX challenges of emerging trend in electronic manufacturing. (12 Marks) c) Silicon is mostly preferred over germanium in fabricating semiconductors electronic devices. Explain TWO main benefits of silicon over germanium. (4 Marks)

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