April 18, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. The paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. 2. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 3. A separate answer booklet will be provided. 4. Candidates should answer the questions in English. This paper consists of 3 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (40 MARKS) Answer all the questions in this section. 1. Identify FIVE forms of emotions experienced at workplace. (5 Marks) 2. A goal has to be set in relation to organizational objective. List THREE reasons why we must set goals. (3 Marks) 3. One of your colleagues has developed low self-esteem. Outline THREE signs of a low self- esteem person. (3 Marks) 4. Time management involves punctuality and has to be observed as per work place policies. Highlight THREE strategies that can help an employee in time management. (3 Marks) 5. List THREE situations that requires negotiations and agreement when dealing with workplace issues. (3 Marks) 6. Outline THREE importance of empathy. (3 Marks) 7. Workers of any organization face stress as a result of workplace challenges. Identify THREE ways of coping with stress. (3 Marks) 8. Leisure is important to an individual who is regularly engaged at work place. Outline THREE benefits of leisure. (3 Marks) 9. Drugs and substance abuse are a threat to work productivity. State FOUR drugs that are regularly abused at workplace. (4 Marks) 10. Awareness of HIV/AIDS should be mandatory at workplace. Highlight THREE negative effects of HIV/AIDS. (3 Marks) 11. Communication is a vital management tool in an organization. Identify THREE forms of communication that can be used at workplace. (3 Marks) 12. Conflicts are common in organizations. State FOUR causes of conflicts. (4 Marks)   SECTION B: (60 MARKS) Answer any THREE questions in this section. 13. a) Explain FIVE time wasting activities that need to be discouraged in order to improve productivity and achieve organizational goals. (10 Marks) b) Hedrick is an office manager at one of the flower firms in Kenya. She has been portraying anger outbursts on staff. She has been sent for counseling. As a counselor, discuss FIVE ways to manage anger at work place. (10 Marks) 14. a) Company A and B have been holding negotiation on collaborations and they have failed to reach an agreement. Explain FIVE reasons that may have led to failure of the negotiation. (10 Marks) b) A good negotiation can leave both parties fulfilled. Discus FIVE stages of negotiation as per communication policy. (10 Marks) 15. a) Discuss FIVE critical listening levels that can be employed while communicating at workplace. (10 Marks) b) JJ has always been late in meeting deadlines of tasks allocated. Advise him on FIVE steps he would follow when setting work priorities. (10 Marks) 16. a) You have been appointed as a team supervisor in a construction firm. Explain FIVE roles that you would play. (10 Marks) b) Discuss FIVE Ways of collecting and analyzing feedback in an organization. (10 Marks)

Demonstrate Employability Skills Nov/Dec 2023 Past Paper (L 6) – Click to view Demonstrate Employability Skills July/Aug 2023 Past Paper (L 6) – Click to view Demonstrate Employability Skills Nov/Dec 2022 Past Paper (L 6) – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. The paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. 2. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 3. A separate answer booklet will be provided. 4. Candidates should answer the questions in English. 5. Do not write on this question paper. This paper consists of 6 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (20 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries one Mark. 1. Identify one benefit of personal career growth and development. A. Job reduction. B. Career mobility. C. Poor networking. D. Job turnover. 2. When can an individual have low self-esteem? A. Constant success. B. Constantly put down by a significant person. C. Feeling loved and wanted. D. Achievement of life goals. 3. What element aids in managing work prioritization and commitment. A. Controlled work. B. Under developed professionalism. C. Unutilized potential. D. Under developed personal goals. 4. Select the benefit of resource planning. A. It lowers productivity. B. High risk oversights. C. Misuse of resources. D. Ensures specific resources are not being over or underutilized. 5. Choose the most reliable means of communication used in an organization. A. Written communication. B. Grapevine communication. C. Cluster communication. D. Star chain communication. 6. ________________is not a sign and symptom of stress. A. Ability to remember. B. Excessive sweating. C. Inability to make decision. D. Deep sleep. 7. Which of the following statement is true about gender mainstreaming. A. Employ me only. B. Employ women only. C. Representation of both men and women. D. Renew contract of retirees. 8. Why do organizations set policies and guidelines? A. Conveys inauthentic information. B. Lowers staff morale. C. Increase productivity. D. Destroys company image. 9. Identify an example of strength based on personal objective. A. Ability to work without supervision. B. Lack of goals. C. Poor interpersonal relationship. D. Being indecisive. 10. Which strategy can be employed to eliminate or adapt to stress? A. Setting priorities. B. Being self-centered. C. Avoiding contact. D. Raising expectation. 11. The following are challenges that hinders the attainment of life goals, EXCEPT? A. Adequate finance. B. Poor self-image. C. Setting unrealistic aspirations. D. Health issues. 12. _______________ is an essential level of listening. A. Careless. B. Heartless. C. Attentive. D. Justice. 13. Identify the purpose of speaking, reading and writing at work. A. To reduce the long working hours. B. To promote absenteeism. C. To get directions and instructions. D. To criticize the leaders. 14. ________________is transmitted up and down through hierarchy. A. Wheel communication. B. Circle communication. C. Star communication. D. Chain communication. 15. Persuasion in communication policy is best described as? A. To change response. B. To conflict ideas. C. To pursue a course. D. Interact well with others. 16. The following aids in developing problem solving skills, EXCEPT? A. Bar. B. Relationship. C. Natural calamities. D. School/home. 17. Which one of the following is not an emotion? A. Grief. B. Sadness. C. Humility. D. Anger. 18. How can a student apply strategies of time management as per workplace goals? A. Procrastination. B. Keeping schedule of activities. C. Failure to plan. D. Underutilization of resources. 19. ______________is an indicator of improvement of work as a result of assigning responsibility to a team. A. Decreased accountability. B. Increased productivity. C. Increased conflicts. D. Overlapping roles. 20. How are team performance expectations set? A. Avoiding rules and regulations. B. Setting standards and goals. C. Idling. D. Politicking. SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer all the questions in this section. 21. ABC Company Limited has organized for a talk on staff morale. Employees have been issued with survey questionnaires to give feedback on job satisfaction. Identify THREE importance of collecting such feedback. (3 Marks) 22. List THREE factors affecting the application of learning at work. (3 Marks) 23. State FOUR purposes of learning. (4 Marks) 24. James likes going for leisure activities every day after work. Lately his performance at work place has greatly improved. List THREE benefits that James may derives from leisure. (3 Marks) 25. Highlight FIVE areas where one can formulate personal goals. (5 Marks) 26. Professionals use different ethical perspectives to defend their positions. List FOUR importance of ethics in an organization. (4 Marks) 27. Outline FIVE examples of empathetic response. (5 Marks) 28. State FIVE importance of time management. (5 Marks) 29. Highlight FOUR negotiation skills needed in an organization. (4 Marks) 30. Identify TWO differences between self-image and self-esteem. (4 Marks)   SECTION C: (40 MARKS) Answer any TWO questions in this section. 31. a. KDC Limited has experienced a drop in general performance. They have been advised by Ushindi Consultancy firm to carry out monitoring in all their activities. Describe FIVE areas that KDC Limited will carry out monitoring. (10 Marks) b. Work prioritization is the activity of arranging tasks in order of their urgency and importance. Explain FIVE steps of setting work priorities. (10 Marks) 32. a. Utubora Company Limited is a newly established company. It intends to formulate a mission statement and they are seeking for your advice. Explain FIVE steps the company would follow in this process. (10 Marks) b. Discuss FIVE ways of managing emotions at work place. (10 Marks) 33. a. Willingness to Learn always takes place in a particular context. Explain FIVE contexts in which learning takes place within different settings. (10 Marks) b. You have been invited to give a talk on personal goals to Uzima Youth Group. Explain to the members of the group FIVE areas on which one can formulate personal goals. (10 Marks)

Demonstrate Employability Skills Nov/Dec 2023 Past Paper (L 5) – Click to view Demonstrate Employability Skills July/Aug 2023 Past Paper (L 5) – Click to view Demonstrate Employability Skills Nov/Dec 2022 Past Paper (L 5) – Click to view Demonstrate Employability Skills May/Aug 2022 Past Paper (L 5) – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. The paper consists of two sections A and B 2. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 3. Do not write on the question paper. 4. A separate answer booklet will be provided. This paper consists of 4 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (10 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries one Mark. 1. Which one of the following statements helps one to identify their personal strengths? A. Discover your personality. B. Dishonesty. C. Keep a closed mind. D. Imitating others. 2. Which of one of the following is a symptom of stress. A. Forgetfulness. B. Ability to make decision. C. Productivity. D. Motivation. 3. _______________ is an important work ethic in every organization. A. Infidelity. B. Minority. C. Integrity. D. Managing. 4. Which one of the following is the ability to plan and control how you spend the hours of your day? A. Time management. B. Self-management. C. Goal management. D. Smart. 5. _______________is a way of measuring individual performance. A. Self-evaluation and checklists. B. Supervision. C. Amount of work done. D. Moods. 6. Self- management is one of the important aspects an individual at work place. Identify one reason for learning self-management skills? A. Minimize productivity. B. Improve performance. C. Delegate workplace task. D. Increase risks. 7. Employees are encouraged to be innovative at workplace to improve on the organizational image. Choose one technique used to encourage Innovation at workplace? A. Closed communication. B. Absence of recognition. C. Willingness to experiment. D. Following existing procedures. 8. The following can be used to improve ethical standards at the workplace, EXCEPT? A. Forming a committee of experts. B. Forming an ethical committee. C. Forming a tribunal. D. Forming informal groups. 9. Select one importance of leisure. A. Reduced concentration. B. Relaxes mind. C. Reduced productivity. D. Involving in drug and substance abuse. 10. Which of the following is NOT communication networks in an organization A. Upward B. Local area networks C. Horizontal D. Downward   SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer all the questions in this section. 11. List FOUR sources of innovation observed at workplace. (4 Marks) 12. Your friend is undergoing stress. Outline FOUR ways of managing stress. (4 Marks) 13. State FIVE activities for improving employee performance. (5 Marks) 14. Drug abuse is on the rise today. Give THREE commonly abused drugs. (3 Marks) 15. Providing leisure time at workplace seems to be an effective strategy for making a balance between work and life. Mention THREE importance of leisure time at work place? (3 Marks) 16. Employees of Inua Company Limited have been complaining of several safety hazards at work place. Highlight FIVE reasons why the organization should address safety issues at work place. (5 Marks) 17. Mambosasa Technical College has realized that there is a gap in performance of their staff. It intends to conduct employee training needs assessment to equip them with necessary skills. State FIVE ways which the institution will use to identify and assess personal training needs. (5 Marks) 18. List FOUR factors that you will consider when choosing a means of communication at the work place. (4 Marks) 19. Organizations are experiencing rapid emerging issues and trends from the environment, requiring them to adopt new strategies. Name FOUR such emerging issues.(4 Marks) 20. List THREE importance of emotional management at work place. (3 Marks)

Demonstrate Employability Skills Nov/Dec 2023 Past Paper (L 4) – Click to view Demonstrate Employability Skills July/August 2023 Past Paper (L 4) – Click to view Demonstrate Employability Skills Nov/Dec 2022 Past Paper (L 4) – Click to view Demonstrate Employability Skills May/August 2022 Past Paper (L 4) – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. The paper consists of TWO sections: A & B. 2. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 3. Do not write on the question paper. 4. A separate answer booklet will be provided. This paper consists of 3 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (40 MARKS) (Answer ALL questions in this section) 1. Natural resources can be classified into stock resources and reserve resources. Differentiate these TWO resources based on their characteristics of exploitation. (4 Marks) 2. Outline FOUR types of physical hazards. (4 Marks) 3. Identify THREE factors to consider when selecting containers for storing hazardous materials. (3 Marks) 4. Mention FIVE institutions established under Environmental Management Coordination Act 1999. (5 Marks) 5. Explain TWO methods of minimizing air pollution emanating from public transport vehicles. (4 Marks) 6. Recycling is a solid waste management process. Outline FOUR benefits of adopting recycling in a manufacturing industry. (4 Marks) 7. Climate change is one of the major global environmental challenges. Highlight FOUR causes of climate change. (4 Marks) 8. Discuss TWO benefits of stakeholder consultation in the successful implementation of environmental programs. (4 Marks) 9. Identify the first FOUR steps in developing a resource conservation plan. (4 Marks) 10. Suggest FOUR approaches that can be adopted by county governments to control illegal dumping of waste. (4 Marks)   SECTION B: (60 MARKS) (Answer ANY THREE questions in this section) 11. You have been deployed in a County Government as an environmental officer. (a) Suggest FIVE environmental conservation projects that you can implement under your jurisdiction. (10 Marks) (b) Discuss FIVE benefits of engaging various stakeholders in the implementation of the project. (10 Marks) 12. Recently, there has been rampant violation of environmental laws in Kenya (a) Describe FIVE approaches that can be adopted for effective enforcement of environmental laws. (10 Marks) b) Explain FIVE functions of National Environment Management Authority (NEMA). (10 Marks) 13. As the chair of the environmental committee in the County, you have been invited to give a speech on energy sources. Examine why the county infrastructural department should adopt renewable sources in favour of non-renewable by; a) Explaining FIVE benefits of renewable energy. (10 Marks) b) Discussing FIVE disadvantages of non-renewable energy. (10 Marks) 14. You have been appointed to advice staff and the management working in an industrial scale incinerator. (a) Explain FIVE health effects of prolonged exposure to poisonous fumes emanating from the incinerator. (10 Marks) b) Elaborate FIVE mitigation measures that can be undertaken to ensure safety of workers. (10 Marks

Demonstrate Environmental Literacy Nov/Dec 2023 Past Paper (L 6) – Click to view Demonstrate Environmental Literacy July/Aug 2023 Past Paper (L 6) – Click to view Demonstrate Environmental Literacy Nov/Dec 2022 Past Paper (L 6) – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. This paper consists of THREE sections: A, B & C. 2. Marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). 3. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of 7 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing   SECTION A: (20 MARKS) Answer ALL questions, each question is 1 mark 1. Select a major greenhouse gas according to the Kyoto protocol A. Carbon monoxide B. Carbon dioxide C. Ammonia D. Argon 2. Identify the principal Act that guides environmental management in Kenya A. Water Act B. County government by-laws C. Environment Management Co-ordination Act, 1999 D. Air quality regulations 2014 3. Select a hazard that qualifies to be classified as a chemical hazard A. Acids B. Vibration C. Noise D. Radiation 4. Identify a resource that is present and has been surveyed, but its usage is limited due to lack of technology A. Stock resource B. Reserve resource C. Actual resource D. Limited resource 5. How do humans get exposed to pesticide residues? A. Birds and insects B. Human food chain C. Animals only D. Plants only 6. Hazardous waste can best be disposed by which method? A. Incineration B. Burying C. Ocean dumping D. Composting 7. Which of the following is a major challenge of waste management in Kenya? A. Lack of disposal sites B. Lack of awareness C. Lack of finance D. Weak policies 8. Choose the correct Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) suitable for head protection A. Caps B. Helmet C. Mask D. Goggles 9. Select the correct order of the 3R’s in waste management A. Reduce, Recycle and Reduce B. Reuse, Recycle and Reduce C. Recycle, Reuse Reduce D. Reduce, Reuse and Recycle 10. How can natural resources be sustainably conserved? A. Allow illegal mining B. Give resources time to get renewed C. Resource substitution D. Allow industries to demolish forests 11. Among the following institutions, which one should be controlled for excessive noise and vibrations? A. Schools and colleges B. Ambulance C. Hospitals D. PSV vehicles 12. Identify a physical water quality parameter A. Turbidity B. Amount of phosphates C. Amount of Biological Oxygen Demand D. Amount of nitrogen 13. Select a characteristic of renewable energy that can be considered as a major limitation A. High pollution B. Available only in few places C. High running cost D. Unreliable supply 14. Among the following human activities, identify one that significantly contributes to natural forest degradation A. Wildfire B. Tree logging C. Cultivation D. Agroforestry 15. How can old car tires be disposed of effectively? A. Incineration B. Reusing C. Recycling D. Dumping 16. Global warming results from various human activities. Select an activity that is a major contributor. A. Irrigation B. Industrial processes C. Livestock farming D. Rice cultivation 17. What concept constitutes the waste minimization technique A. Resource maximization B. 3Rs principles C. Mono-cropping D. Replenish 18. Select a major challenge that is common in implementation of environmental programs A. Weak policies B. Resource mobilization C. Lack of expertise D. Monitoring 19. Identify the main reason for stakeholder feedback in implementing a nature project A. Enhance project sustainability B. Evaluate progress C. Mobilize resources D. Solicit local support 20. Monitoring is an important phase of a project cycle. At what stage is it necessary? A. At the beginning of the program B. Throughout the life of the program C. At the midpoint of the program D. At the end of the program   SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer All questions in this section 21. Monitoring environmental hazards is critical in a workplace . Highlight its FOUR purposes. (4 Marks) 22. Waste dumping is becoming a common challenge in urban centers. State FOUR benefits of minimizing wastes. (4 Marks) 23. One of the ways of storing hazardous waste is by use of containers that must meet certain standards State FOUR aspects considered when choosing a suitable storage container for environmentally hazardous materials. (4 Marks) 24. Outline FOUR qualities of a natural resource to be classified as renewable. (4 Marks) 25. State FOUR benefits of adopting circular economy in a manufacturing industry. (4 Marks) 26. There has been complains from environmentalists on lifting the ban on logging in Kenya. Identify FOUR effects that are expected in the long term after lifting the ban. (4 Marks) 27. Soil is an important resource in the agricultural sector. Outline FOUR human activities that cause soil degradation. (4 Marks) 28. There are various tools that are used in environmental monitoring. List FOUR tools that are necessary when collecting environmental data. (4 Marks) 29. Hazards can be classified as mechanical, chemical and biological. Enumerate FOUR examples of biological hazards. (4 Marks) 30. State FOUR environmental conventions that address global warming. (4 Marks)   SECTION C: (40 MARKS) Answer ANY TWO questions in this section 31. Agriculture is the backbone of Kenya’s economy, but in the recent years global warming has adversely affected the sector. a) Explain FIVE effects of climate change on Agriculture (10 Marks) b) Suggest FIVE mitigation measures addressing climate change effects in (a) above (10 Marks) 32. There has been a community complaint about pollution of a local river by discharge of sugar factory effluents. The contaminated water has negatively affected the health of the residents. Explain how the community will involve NEMA in mitigating the effects of pollution. (20 Marks) 33. Explain FIVE roles of natural forests in: a) Water conservation (10 marks) b) Air purification (10 Marks)

Demonstrate Environmental Literacy Nov/Dec 2023 Past Paper (L 5) – Click to view Demonstrate Environmental Literacy July/Aug 2023 Past Paper (L 5) – Click to view Demonstrate Environmental Literacy Nov/Dec 2022 Past Paper (L 5) – Click to view Demonstrate Environmental Literacy May/Aug 2022 Past Paper (L 5) – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. The paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. 2. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 3. Do not write on the question paper. 4. A separate answer booklet will be provided. This paper consists of 4 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (10 MARKS) Answer All the questions in this section. Each correct answer is 1 Mark 1. Select a management plan that a manufacturing company should develop for effective disposal of solid waste A. Integrated waste management plan B. Recycling of waste management plan C. Reducing of waste management plan D. Use of waste management plan 2. Choose a physical waste water quality parameter A. Amount of phosphates B. Turbidity C. Chemical Oxygen Demand D. Total Phosphates 3. Identify a disadvantage of renewable energy A. High pollution B. Available only in few places C. High running cost D. High initial cost 4. Choose a major cause of deforestation from the following activities A. Industrial development B. Cultivation C. Hunting D. Agroforestry 5. What characteristic makes waste to be classified as hazardous? A. When waste will not cause any explosion B. When waste increase mortality C. When waste is less toxic D. When waste is biodegradable 6. Select the second level of practice in integrated solid waste management hierarchy A. Prevention B. Minimization C. Disposal D. Recycling 7. What is the main contributor of ozone layer depletion? A. Emission of Carbon dioxide B. Burning of litter C. Emission of halons D. Emission of Carbon monoxide 8. Which of the following is a major effect of noise level exceeding 90 decibels? A. Nausea B. Irritation C. Auditory impairment D. Headache 9. Gases that contribute to global warming are known as? A. Greenhouse gases B. Brown gases C. Inert gases D. Chlorofluorocarbons 10. Which gases are responsible for acid rain formation? A. Sulphur dioxide and Nitrogen oxides B. Carbon dioxide and Carbon monoxide C. Hydrogen sulphide and methane D. Argon and Helium SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer All questions in this section 11. Identify FOUR objectives of monitoring environmental resources. (4 Marks) 12. List FIVE benefits of supporting the blue economy. (5 Marks) 13. State FOUR types of Personal Protective Equipment (PPEs) used in a workshop. (4 Marks) 14. Outline FOUR methods used for the disposal of radioactive waste generated from a processing Industry. (4 Marks) 15. Highlight FIVE environmentally friendly solid waste management practices. (5 Marks) 16. Outline FIVE common sources of indoor air pollution. (5 Marks) 17. Mention FOUR methods that can be used in the conservation of non-renewable resources. (4 Marks) 18. Differentiate between recycling and reusing in resource use efficiency. (4 Marks) 19. State FIVE ways that can be adopted by a manufacturing industry for sustainable resource utilization. (5 Marks)

Demonstrate Environmental Literacy Nov/Dec 2023 Past Paper (L 4) – Click to view Demonstrate Environmental Literacy July/Aug 2023 Past Paper (L 4) – Click to view Demonstrate Environmental Literacy Nov/Dec 2022 Past Paper (L 4) – Click to view Demonstrate Environmental Literacy May/Aug 2022 Past Paper (L 4) – Click to view