April 23, 2024

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INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.This paper has two sections A and B. 2.Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 3.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 4.Answer all questions in the answer booklet. 5.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 6.Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of SIX (6) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that All pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A (40 MARKS) Answer ALL the questions in this section 1. Two numbers are in the ratio 3:4. If their sum is 63, find the numbers. (4 Marks) 2. Fifteen men working for eight hours a day can complete a certain job in exactly 24 days. For how many hours a day must sixteen men work in order to complete the same job in exactly 20 days? (3 Marks) 3. A saleslady earns a basic salary of Ksh. 25,000 and a commission of 7.5% for the sales in excess of Ksh. 100,000. In May 2023 she earned a total of Ksh. 48,700 in salaries and commissions. Determine the amount of sales that she made in that month. (4 Marks) 4. A transport company operates three types of trucks A, B and C. Their load capacities are 32 tonnes, 8 tonnes and 10 tonnes respectively. Calculate the least possible mass in tonnes that the company can transport with the three trucks. (3 Marks) 5. Amani, Makena and Zainabu planned to start a business that deals with beauty products. They contributed the capital in the ratio 3:4:7. Zainabu contributed Kshs.35,000. (i) How much capital did the three raise. (4 Marks) (ii) Determine the total amount of money contributed by Amani and Makena (3 Marks) 6. A nursery school in Upendo town consumes 6500 milliliters of milk every day. How much milk in Litres did they consume in the month of September? (4 Marks) 7. Amina sold a car to Judith and made a profit of 20%. After two years Judith sold the car to Boni at Kshs.324, 000, making a loss of 10%. Determine the price at which Amina bought the car. (5 Marks) 8. A construction blueprint uses a scale of 1:100. If the length of a wall on the blueprint is 8 centimeters. Find the actual length of the wall in metres. (3 Marks) 9. Sarah had 8 units of competency during her first term in college. She scored the following Marks in each unit, 56, 70, 63, 84, 90, 77, 70 and 81. Find the: – (i) Median mark (2 Marks) (ii) Mean mark (2 Marks) 10. Simplify the expression (3 Marks) SECTION B (60 MARKS) Answer any THREE questions in this section. 11. a) Zawadi is a mother of three children namely John, James and Maria. She divided her monthly income among her children in the ratio 2: 3: 5 respectively. If Maria got Ksh. 50,000. Find: (i) Zawadi’s monthly income. (4 Marks) (ii) Amount of money received by John and James. (4 Marks) (iii) How much did John receive more than James? (2 Marks) (b) The mass (M) of a cylinder varies jointly as the square of the radius (𝑟) and inversely as the square root of the height (ℎ). If the radius is reduced by 25% and the height increased by 21%, calculate the percentage change in the mass of the cylinder. (5 Marks) (c) An irregular polygon has n sides. Its interior angles are such that two of them are right angles while the exterior of each of the remaining angles is 30. Find the value of n and hence the sum of the interior angles of the polygon. (5 Marks) 12. (a) Figure 1 shows a histogram that represents the Marks scored by trainees at Zeraki Institute of technology in a Numeracy skills contest. Figure 1: 13. (a) Five towns A, B, C, D and E are such that B is on a bearing of 0460 and a distance of 8 km form A. The bearing and distance of C from B are S400E and 101 km respectively. Towns D and E is 5.8 km from C and on a bearing of 1250 from A such that E is closer to A than D. Using the scale of 1: 100 000, show the relative positions of the towns A, B, C, D and E. (8 Marks) (b) Use the scale drawing to determine: (i) the distance between A and D (2 Marks) (ii) the compass bearing of B from E (1 Mark) (c) Two police patrol vehicles leave town B and C simultaneously. The one from B travels due south while the one from C travels on a bearing of 2700. The two vehicles meet at town T. (i) Use scale drawing to locate the position of T. (2 Marks) (ii) How far is D from T? (1 Mark) (d) Pump P can fill an empty tank in 7 ½ hours while pump Q can fill the same tank in 11 ¼ hours. On a certain day, when the tank was empty, both pumps were opened for 2 ½ hours. Determine the fraction of the tank that was still empty at the end of the 2 ½ hours. (6 Marks) 14. a) Figure 1 shows a closed water tank comprising of a hemispherical part surmounted on top of a cylindrical part. The two parts have the same diameter of 2.8cm and the cylindrical part is 1.4m high as shown: –

Demonstrate Numeracy Skills Nov/Dec 2023 Past papers (L 6) – Click to view Demonstrate Numeracy Skills Nov/Dec 2022 Past papers (L 6) – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.This paper has TWO sections A and B. 2.Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 3.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 4.Answer all questions in the answer booklet. 5.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 6.Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of FIVE (5) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that All pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (10 MARKS) Answer ALL the questions in this section. Each question carries ONE mark 1. Which of the following operation of numbers is correct? A. 27 − 7 − 3 = 27 − (7 − 3) B. 27 − 7 × 3 = (27 − 7) × 3 C. 27 − 7 ÷ 3 = (27 − 7) ÷ 3 D. 27 ÷ 7 − 3 = (27 ÷ 7) − 3 2. Find the longitude difference between the two towns, Komo (300𝑁, 600𝐸) and Boma (300𝑆, 400𝐸). A. 700 B. 600 C. 1000 D. 200 3. A fraction whose numerator is greater than denominator is called. A. Proper fraction B. Improper fraction C. Mixed fraction D. Common fraction 4. Find the perimeter of an isosceles triangle with equal sides 4.7𝑐𝑚 and base 6.3𝑐𝑚 A. 9.4𝑐𝑚 B. 11𝑐𝑚 C. 15.7𝑐𝑚 D. 17.3𝑐𝑚 5. Determine the volume of a rectangular box measuring 1𝑚 by 1.5𝑚 by 0.8𝑚. A. 1.2𝑚2 B. 1.2𝑚3 C. 1.5𝑚2 D. 1.5𝑚3 6. Convert 25𝑘𝑔 of meat into grams. A. 0.25𝑔 B. 250𝑔 C. 2500𝑔 D. 25000𝑔 7. A bus left Lodwar at 9.30 𝐴. 𝑀. and arrived at Nairobi at 10.25 𝑃. 𝑀. Find the time taken for the whole journey. A. 12 ℎ𝑟𝑠. 55𝑚𝑖𝑛. B. 10 ℎ𝑟𝑠. 25𝑚𝑖𝑛. C. 19 ℎ𝑟𝑠. 55𝑚𝑖𝑛. D. 9 ℎ𝑟𝑠. 30𝑚𝑖𝑛. 8. Find the size of the smallest angle of a triangle whose angles are 2𝑥, (𝑥 + 10), (3𝑥 − 50). A. 200 B. 300 C. 400 D. 100 9. The following are various ways of presenting data except. A. Pie-chart B. Bar graph C. Rank order D. Pictogram 10. The interior angle of a regular polygon is six and a half times the exterior angle. Find the number of sides of the polygon. A. 20 B. 24 C. 15 D. 12   SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer ALL the questions in this section 14. For seven consecutive days, the meteorological department recorded the following amount of rainfall in 𝑐𝑚: 0.5, 2.2, 0.9, 0.4, 1.6, 0.8 and 1.5. Find the mean amount of the rainfall for the week to the nearest 𝑚𝑚. (3 Marks) 15. Construct a parallelogram of sides 6cm and 4cm with the angle between them being 480. Measure its longer diagonal. (4 Marks) 16. A rectangular block is 50𝑐𝑚 long and 15𝑐𝑚 wide. Determine its height if its volume is 7.5 litres. (4 Marks) 17. A piece of wire is in form of an arc of a circle, radius 10.5𝑚. Find the length of the wire given that the angle at the centre of the arc is 1500. Take 𝜋 =22/7 (4 Marks) 18. Mr. Wangila saved 𝑆ℎ𝑠. 5 coins and 𝑆ℎ𝑠. 10 coins in a can. There are 14 coins in total and their value is 𝑆ℎ𝑠. 105. Find the number of each type of coin. (4 Marks) 19. Table 2 below shows the height of athletes in a college team. 20. Find the surface area of an open cylindrical tin of radius 6.3𝑐𝑚 and height 22𝑐𝑚. (4 Marks)

Demonstrate Numeracy Skills Nov/Dec 2023 Past paper (L 4) – Click to view Demonstrate Numeracy Skills Nov/Dec 2022 Past paper (L 4) – Click to view Demonstrate Numeracy Skills May/Aug 2022 Past paper (L 4) – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has THREE sections A, B and C 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are as indicated 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of EIGHT (8) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing   SECTION A: 20 MARKS Answer all the questions in this section. Each question carries one Mark 1. In a grazing field the ratio of goats to sheep is 4:3, sheep to cows 5:2 and cows to donkeys is 3:2. Determine the ratio of goats to donkeys. A. 1:2 B. 1:1 C. 2:1 D. 5:1 2. A rectangular garden is enclosed by 320 metres of fencing. If the length of the field is 6 metres more than its width, find its length, in metres. A. 80 B. 83 C. 77 D. 157 3. A Lorry travels at a speed of 60 Kilometers per hour. Find the distance travelled in 2.5 hours. A. 120km B. 150km C. 125km D. 140km 5. In statistics, a bar graph represents A. Continuous data B. Discrete data C. Categorical data D. Ordinal data 6. In a map, the distance between two towns A and B is 20cm. Using a scale of 1cm to represent 10km, find the actual distance between the two towns. A. 10Km B. 2Km C. 20Km D. 200Km 8. Baraka enterprise packed 15 cartons each containing 20 bottles of juice. The amount of juice in each bottle was 250ml. Find the total amount of juice, in litres, packed by the company. A. 75 B. 75000 C. 7500 D. 150 9. When an isosceles triangle is rotated about its line of symmetry, which three dimensional figure will be formed? A. Cone B. Cube C. Cylinder D. Triangular prism 10. Evaluate 0.003 – 0.0018 – 0.01 + 0.42. A. 0.4122 B. 0.4112 C. 0.4212 D. 0.41 11. Find the value of 24 ÷ 3 + 4 × 5 − 8 ÷ 4 × 10 + 1. A. 7 B. 28 C. 21 D. 9 12. A rectangle has a length of 8 cm and a width of 5 cm, determine its perimeter. A. 13 B. 40 C. 26 D. 20 13. Muna is to be paid sh. 12500 for working 25 days in an ostrich farm. How much money was he paid after working for 22 days? A. Sh. 1500 B. Sh. 11000 C. Sh. 12000 D. Sh. 12500 D. 108 16. A dairy farmer buys animal feeds in sacks of 80kg, 60kg, and 40kg. Find the largest quantity of feed that can be packed out of these sacks without any feed being left over. A. 40 B. 15 C. 20 D. 450 17. In a bar graph, what does the height of a bar represent? A. Frequency or count B. Time C. Percentage D. Magnitude 18. Find the mode of the following data: 12,8,21,12,4,11,18,13,20,19,21,12 and 11. A. 12 B. 13 C. 12.5 D. 15.5 19. Find the surface area of a cubic open tank sides 7metres. A. 245 m2 B. 49 m2 C. 28 m2 D. 294 m2 20. Find the next number in the pattern 12, 10, 6, 0, −8. A. -16 B. 2 C. 10 D. -1   SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer all the questions in this section 21. A shopkeeper bought 7 trays of eggs at K.sh 400 per tray. On the way to the kiosk 40 eggs broke. The remaining were sold for Kshs.16 each. Determine his percentage loss. (4 Marks) 22. Arrange the following fractions in descending order. 23. A numeracy learning guide has 97 sheets of paper, front cover and back cover. Each sheet of paper has a mass of 6 grams while front and back cover in total weigh 15 g. Find the mass of the book in kilograms. (3 Marks) 24. Given that the mean of the numbers 18, 20, 15, x, 24 and 12 is 17, determine the value of x. (3 Marks) 25. Three light signals A, B and C go on at intervals of 45 seconds, 75 seconds and 30 seconds respectively. They first signaled at 9 pm. Determine the time that will elapse before the signal go on again simultaneously. (5 Marks) 26. A piece of land of area 4800 m2 and perimeter 280 m. Find the dimensions of the land in 𝑐𝑚. (5 Marks) 27. Using a ruler and a pair of compass only, construct a triangle ABC with sides AB= 5cm, AB=5cm and angle BAC= 600. (5 Marks) 28. The sum of the interior angles of a polygon is 1980°. determine the number of sides of the polygon. (3 Marks) 29. A straight line passes through the points P (−4, 2) and Q(2, 7). determine the equation of the perpendicular line through Q. (4 Marks) 30. A candidate scored 60% in numeracy, 70% in metal work, 80% in employability skills, 75% in digital literacy, and 55% in applied science. Represent the score in a pie chart. (5 Marks)   SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer any TWO questions in this section 31. (a) A student takes a train for two-thirds of his journey, a bus for seven eighths of the remainder, and walks the rest of the journey. Given that the bus journey is 3 kilometers longer than the walking part, the total distance covered by the student is? (7 Marks) (b) A school watchman started walking due East from a dormitory 100m South of a bore-hole. He walked to the school library from which the bearing of the bore-hole is 315o. He then walked on a bearing of 030o to the water tank. From the water tank he went west to the bore-hole. (i) Using a scale of 1cm to represent 20m, construct a diagram to show the positions of the tank, borehole, dormitory and library. (5 Marks) (ii) Find the distance and bearing of the bore-hole from the

INSTRUCTIONS 1. This paper has TWO sections A and B 2. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 3. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 4. Answer all questions in the answer booklet. 5. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 6. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of THREE (3) printed pages. Candidates should check and ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. 1. Encouraging group participation is essential for effective teamwork and collaboration. State FOUR strategies that can help in fostering and promoting active group participation. (4 Marks) 2. Identify FOUR advantages of establishing communication pathways. (4 Marks) 3. Engaging your audience and maintaining their interest during a presentation is essential for effective communication. Highlight FOUR techniques to achieve this, whether it’s an internal team or external stakeholders. (4 Marks) 4. Identify FOUR importance of measuring the outcomes and impact of communication strategies. (4 Marks) 5. Outline FOUR negative effects of grapevine communication network within a workplace. (4 Marks) 6. When questioning a client, it is important to know which questions to ask for right information generation. Highlight FOUR types of questions you would ask. (4 Marks) 7. Each organization is required to hold meetings annual as part of organizational policies, in your own knowledge, what are FOUR advantages of holding a meeting in an organization. (4 Marks) 8. Developing rapport during an interview is crucial to establish a positive connection with the interviewer and increase your chances of success. State FOUR ways to build rapport during interview. (4 Marks) 9. When choosing media for communication, it’s essential to consider various factors to ensure that your message reaches the intended audience effectively. Identify FOUR considerations you will consider. (4 Marks) 10. Identify FOUR appropriate ways that enhance a good group interaction. (4 Marks) SECTION B (60 MARKS) Answer any THREE questions in this section 11. Respecting individual differences in an organization is crucial for creating an inclusive and diverse workplace where each employee feels valued and can contribute their best. a) Discuss FIVE techniques to use in order to ensure that individual differences are respected in organizational communication. (10 Marks) b) Discuss FIVE barriers to communication in an organization. (10 Marks) 12. You work as a customer service representative for a a laundry company. One of your clients has called to make an enquiry from the company. a) Describe FIVE key steps you would take to handle this client inquiry effectively over the phone. (10 Marks) b) Explain five factors to ways to apply when handling client inquiries over the phone for effective communication. (10 Marks) 13. Evaluating a group communication strategy involves a systematic assessment of the strategy’s effectiveness and its impact on achieving the group’s goals. a) Demonstrate FIVE ways on how you can use your skills to evaluate a group communication strategy. (10 Marks) b) Explain FIVE stages of group formation. (10 Marks) 14. You have been tasked to give a speech in your graduation ceremony on behalf of your graduating class. a) Explain FOUR characteristics of a good speech. (8 Marks) b) Identify FOUR objectives of effective communication that you should have in mind that will help enhance your speech delivery. (4 Marks) c) Discuss FOUR nonverbal communication skills that you will use to enhance delivery of the speech. (8 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.The paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. 2.Marks for each question are as indicated in the brackets 3.Do not write on the question paper, all answers should be in written in the answer booklet provided This paper consists of SEVEN (7) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing   SECTION A (20 MARKS) Answer all the question in this section. Each question is 1 mark. 1. The most effective way to phrase your message when giving feedback to a report presented to you would be? A. “You always make mistakes in your work.” B. “Your work is terrible.” C. “I noticed a few errors in your recent report. Let’s work together to correct them.” D. “You’re the worst at this.” 2. In a conflict resolution scenario, what is “compromise”? A. Giving in to the other person’s demands completely. B. Finding a middle ground where both parties give up something to reach an agreement. C. Avoiding the conflict and hoping it will go away. D. Ignoring the conflict altogether. 3. Sheila is working in a customer service desk. Give reason why it is important to be clear and concise when communicating? A. To make communication more enjoyable to listener. B. To demonstrate her speaking skills. C. To avoid misunderstandings and save time. D. To create a sense of belonging in the conversation. 4. As a team leader, what is the effective approach when delivering constructive feedback to team members? A. Be vague to avoid hurting their feelings. B. Use humor to lighten the mood. C. Focus on specific behaviors and their impact, and offer suggestions for improvement. D. Provide feedback only during formal performance reviews. 5. In a job interview, when asked about your weaknesses, which of the following responses demonstrates strong communication skills? A. “I don’t have any weaknesses.” B. “I sometimes struggle with time management, but I’m working on it.” C. “I prefer to work alone and find it hard to collaborate with others.” D. “I have many weaknesses, but I don’t think they’re relevant to this job.” 6. Effective communication builds relationship. Which one of the following is an approach that can be used to meet communication needs of workers in an organization? A. Respectfulness B. Total Hearing C. Distractions D. Inattentiveness 7. One of the following is an important non-verbal aspect of communication; A. Maintaining constant eye contact B. Responding to emails promptly C. Facial expression, gestures and body language D. Using technical jargon 8. Identify from the following an advantage of active listening in a professional context A. It saves time by cutting short conversations. B. It demonstrates your expertise on the subject. C. It shows respect and understanding. D. It allows you to dominate the conversation. 9. The primary goal of communication is? A. To create barriers B. To be polite C. To have completeness D. To effect a change 10. During delivery of a presentation a key element of effective communication would be? A. Avoiding eye contact with the audience B. Speaking as fast as possible to cover all the material. C. Organizing content logically and using visual aids effectively. D. Using complex technical jargon to impress the audience. 11. Which one of the following is involved in evaluating group communication strategies? A. Deciding on the type of evaluations to be conducted B. Establishing the meters to be measured C. Establishing key developments D. Having a deal 12. A potential drawback of closed-ended questions in communication is? A. They encourage detailed responses B. They may limit the amount of information shared C. They promote open and honest dialogue D. They establish rapport and trust 13. The primary purpose of a curriculum vitae is? A. To list all the job, you’ve ever had B. To give information about your talents C. To showcase your qualification and experiences D. To demonstrate ability of writing 14. During communication strategy development the first stage is known as? A. Revision. B. Implementation. C. Analysis. D. Evaluation 15. When information flows from one functional area to the other at the same level, this will be referred to? A. Horizontal communication B. Informal communication C. Grapevine communication D. Upward communication 16. One of the following is the important reason of setting agenda for a meeting? A. To measure success of a meeting B. To help the group prepare for the meeting C. To give reason why people shouldn’t attend the meeting D. To help in disciplining those who don’t contribute 17. In a business meeting, which one of the following is an example of active listening? A. Interrupting others to share your ideas. B. Checking your email during the meeting. C. Nodding in agreement and asking clarifying questions. D. Remaining silent throughout the discussion. 18. Show an example of an etiquette in professional email communication. A. Using informal language to make the email more personal. B. Including all details in the body of the email without attachments. C. Forwarding all received emails without responses to save time. D. Proofreading and spell-checking the email before sending it. 19. During a negotiation, which of the following is a key aspect of effective communication? A. Being inflexible and not considering the other party’s perspective. B. Making unrealistic demands to gain an advantage. C. Actively listening, asking questions, and seeking common ground. D. Avoiding eye contact to maintain a poker face. 20. The communication strategy that is most appropriate when answering behavioral interview questions that ask about your past experiences and actions is? A. Using vague and general responses B. Sharing specific examples from your past C. Avoiding eye contact with the interviewer D. Responding with unrelated anecdotes   SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer all the questions in this section. Marks are indicated in bracket 21. State FOUR importance of nonverbal communication in a professional context. (4 Marks) 22. Adapting your communication style when working with team members from different cultural backgrounds

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. This paper has two sections A and B. 2. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 3. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 4. Answer all questions in the answer booklet. 5. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 6. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of FOUR (4) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (10 MARKS) Answer ALL questions. Each question carries (1mark) 1. How will you enhance communication in an organization? A. Improving workplace communication B. Sparking innovation C. Improving employee productivity D. Increased Remuneration 2. The primary source of conflict in communication is? A. Lack of technology B. Excessive politeness C. Misunderstandings D. Time management issues 3. Active listening will help to resolve conflicts in communication by; A. Avoiding the issue B. Improving understanding and empathy C. Making quick judgements D. Dominating the conversation 4. In a business setting, which communication channel is typically considered the most formal and authoritative? A. Video conferencing B. In-person meetings C. Written letters D. Phone calls 5. One of the following is a consideration when selecting a communication channel; A. Personal preference of the sender B. The fastest available option C. The cost of communication D. The complexity of the message 6. During a job interview, if you encounter a question, you’re unsure about, which of the following communication strategies is recommended? A. Refusing to answer the question B. Changing the topic to your own accomplishments C. Politely asking for clarification or more information D. Providing a fabricated response 7. The primary purpose of effective questioning in communication is? A. To dominate the conversation B. To make the conversation longer C. To gather information and promote understanding D. To avoid interaction with others 8. The listening technique that involves paraphrasing or restating what the speaker has said to confirm and understand is known as? A. Selective listening B. Passive listening C. Inattentive listening D. Active listening 9. An example of an open-ended question is? A. “Is this your first time here?” B. “Did you enjoy the presentation?” C. “What do you think about the project’s progress?” D. “Are you feeling okay today?” 10. The nonverbal cue that is often associated with nervousness or discomfort is? A. Fidgeting or tapping B. Smiling C. Maintaining eye contact D. Leaning forward SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section 11. State THREE ways of identifying communication needs. (3 Marks) 12. What is the difference between communication and communication pathway? (2 Marks) 13. You are asked to make a presentation on communication skills. List FOUR importance of communication in an organization. (4 Marks) 14. Outline FOUR ways you can encourage participation in a group. (4 Marks) 15. Highlight FOUR ways a company can advertise its products. (4 Marks) 16. You have realized that two of your team members are always in an argument. Mention FOUR types of conflicts in an organization. (4 Marks) 17. Define the following types of communication. (4 Marks) a) Upward communication b) Downward communication 18. List TWO advantages of using banners as a way of communication. (2 Marks) 19. Identify THREE different barriers to communication in an organization. (3Marks) 20. Identify THREE factors to be considered when choosing a communication media. (3 Marks) 21. Non-verbal communication is one method we can communicate in an organization. List TWO examples of visuals channels of communication. (2 Marks) 22. Your manager has sent a circular that you will have a meeting for all staff at the of the month. List any TWO types of meeting in an organization. (2 Marks) 23. You have been invited to attend an interview. Mention THREE types of interviews. (3 Marks)