June 2024

BASIC UNITS OF COMPETENCY Demonstrate Communication Skills Demonstrate Numeracy Skills Demonstrate Digital Literacy Demonstrate Entrepreneural Skills Demonstrate Employability Skills Demonstrate Environmental Literacy Demonstrate Occupational Safety and Health Practices CORE UNITS OF COMPETENCY Home based Care and Child Welfare Support Manage Community Based Groups Manage Project Resources

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. This paper has three sections A, B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are as indicated. 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of 7 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A : (20 Marks) Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries one mark. 1. Institutional capacity for disaster management and risk reduction is a key mechanism in disaster management. Which of the following best describe capacity building in disaster management. A. It involves putting in place all the procedures required to curb a disaster from happening. B. It is a process of conducting a training which aims at equipping the people concerned in the community with the skills to carry out several activities with an ease especially during a disaster. C. Involves building of the existing gaps in the community in carrying out disaster management activities. D. It is the agenda setting of the outlined priorities in the community. 2. A disaster preparedness plan is an arrangement that helps organizations ensure readiness in the event of disasters. What is the primary goal of a disaster preparedness plan? A. To protect the population B. To protect valuable resources C. To keep communications lines open D. To protect environmental health personnel 3. Which of the following human factor cause floods? A. Heavy rainfall B. Cloud burst C. Terrorism D. Deforestation 4. Disaster management requires a collaboration of various personnel. Who is responsible for securing the scene, preserving life and managing the wounded in the event of a disaster? A. Mental health professionals B. Social workers C. First aiders D. All citizens 5. Which of the following best describes drought as a disaster? A. A period of no rainfall for a long continuous period of time B. Heavy rainfall for a long continuous period C. Moderate rainfall for a long continuous period D. Scarcity of food and money 6. ________________ is NOT a member of the United Nations Disaster Management Team (UNDMT)? A. UNICEF B. County Government C. FAO D. WHO 7. Effective hazard management is enhanced by? A. Construction of facilities B. Emergency responses C. Pre-disaster planning D. Report writing 8. Disasters directly impact the wellbeing of the population. What is the main cause of cholera? A. Poor nutrition B. Floods C. Air pollution D. Poor sanitation 9. Which of the following groups of people is more vulnerable in the event of disaster? A. Men, boys, the aged B. Men, women, boys C. Women, children, the aged D. None of the above 10. ____________________ is the extent to which a community structure, services or geographic area is likely to be damaged or disrupted by the impact of particular hazard. A. Capacity B. Vulnerability C. Risk D. Hazard assessment 11. Which of the following agency is NOT a National Disaster Risk Reduction stakeholder? A. Central Government B. National Disaster department C. Recreational groups D. Private Sector 12. A mass killing disease is best classified as a ___________________disaster. A. Biological disaster B. Industrial disaster C. War disaster D. Flood disaster 13. Mitigation involves measures taken to minimize the effect of a disaster. Which of the following is a structural measure in disaster mitigation? A. Hazard mapping B. Raising of homes in flood prone areas C. Insuring of property D. Relocating of equipment outside flood plains 14. For effective response to a disaster, it is necessary to familiarize the masses with the scenario which could be done through disaster rehearsals. Who among the following personnel is responsible for arranging of a mock drill on fire disasters in school? A. Police force B. Government authorities C. Fire fighters D. The school administration 15. Disaster risk determines the likelihood of damage from a disaster within a given period of time. Which of the following best outlines risk measures implied while evaluating disasters in a community? A. Creation of awareness B. Collection of data on disaster C. Civic education and resource mobilization. D. Mitigation, preparedness, response and recovery. 16. The primary role of the community in disaster response is to? A. Provide basic relief assistance B. Restore and Rehabilitate of critical facilities C. Provide national security D. Provide the government with funds to address the disasters 17. The following are challenges in disaster response, EXCEPT? A. Political interferences B. Inadequate resources C. Participation by the community members D. Limited information by community 18. Which disaster is commonly addressed through the implementation of risk mitigation method of building levees and barriers? A. Earthquakes B. Tornado C. Wildfire D. Floods 19. Which of the following is NOT a mitigation technique for landslides? A. Construction of retention wall to stop from slipping B. Hazard mapping to locate areas prone to slides C. Reduction in the vegetation cover to arrest landslide D. Building of Surface drainage control 20. Wildfires are uncontrolled fire that causes destruction to life and property. The following are causes of wildfire hazards EXCEPT? A. Volcanic eruption B. El-Nino C. Volcanic Lightning and thundering D. Burning debris   SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. 21. Distinguish between disaster and disaster management. (2 marks) 22. Effective documentation involves collecting and storing all information about an event. State FOUR benefits of storing information gathered during disaster management process. (4 marks) 23. Disaster response involves all measure taken to minimize the adverse effects of a disaster. Identify FIVE ways of responding to a disaster in the community.(5 marks) 24. Over the years, Kenya has faced a variety of disasters which have resulted in mass destruction of life and properties leading to rising economic losses. List FOUR common disasters witnessed in Kenya recently. (4 marks) 25. Government plays a leading role in planning and management of disasters through participatory collaboration with other partners and bodies. Identify FOUR roles of stakeholders in disaster operations. (4 marks) 26. The effectiveness of

Conduct Community Crisis and Disaster Sensitization Programs Nov/Dec 2023 Past Paper (L 5) – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. This paper has three sections A, B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are as indicated. 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of 7 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: (20 Marks) Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries one Mark. 1. _______________ are relatively larger groups composed of impersonal and goal-oriented relationships, which are often temporal. A. Primary groups. B. Social groups. C. Secondary groups. D. Welfare groups. 2. ______________ is a type of leadership style where leaders allow team members to make their own decisions and work independently, with minimal interference or direction from the leader. A. Autocratic B. Laissez-faire. C. Bureaucratic D. Authoritarian 3. Which of the following best describes community based groups? A. Are local profit groups that works to generate improvements within a community B. Are non- profit organizations that work for the improvement of the government C. They are profit organizations established and run by community members D. Are local non-profit groups that works to generate improvements within a community 4. _____________ is concerned with formation, structures and processes of group functioning. A. Group leadership B. Group dynamics C. Group analysis D. Group formation 5. The following roles are carried out by group leaders in community activities EXCEPT? A. Donation of relief items B. Needs identification C. Training D. Mobilization 6. _____________________ is NOT a technique used to conduct needs assessment. A. Face-to-face interviews B. Observation C. Key informant interview D. Sampling 7. Who among the following is considered as a key contact person in the community? A. Business investors B. School going children C. Political leaders D. Experts 8. The following are components of an assessment tool EXCEPT? A. Group membership B. Year of registration C. Type of the group D. Name of the group leader 9. Which of the following is a capacity assessment tool in community group work? A. SPSS B. PERT C. SWOT D. Gant chart 10. The following are the features of a group EXCEPT? A. They do not have clearly defined rules B. Clearly defined rules C. Common goals or aims D. They have a membership 11. _______________ is a factor that influences the activities of a community organization. A. Time B. Problems C. Demography D. Climate 12. Which of the following conducts should a community worker avoid engaging in? A. Lecturing the community on what to do B. Learn from other people. C. Respect local knowledge and culture. D. Keeping things simple and not complicated 13. Community members can support the work of community based groups in various ways. Which among the following is the best way an individual can support? A. By criticizing their work. B. By volunteering, making, making donations, attending events, and participating in programs and services C. By avoiding their programs and services. D. By starting their own non -profit organization 14. ___________________is a factor to consider when formulating a goal in community based organizations A. Availability of resources. B. Politics C. Structure of the organization. D. Individual interests of community members 15. A process of determining the gaps between a current conditions and desired outcomes in a community is known as______________ A. Needs analysis B. Needs assessment C. Gap identification D. Need gap assessment 16. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of participating in community based groups? A. Promotes sense of belongingness. B. Set goals and improve skills. C. Distributing community resources D. Adapt and develop new skills. 17. ________________is a benefits of planning in community based groups A. Increasing efficiency B. Making the group passive C. Increasing division D. Improves staff turnover 18. Which of the following is NOT an area of gender assessment A. Roles and responsibilities B. Leadership C. Access to resources D. Ethnicity 19. ___________ is the most effective strategy used by community development workers in mobilizing community members. A. National broadcasting media B. Community barazas C. Drum beating D. Poems 20. ____________is an element of community group formation by-law A. Challenges of the group B. Wealth of the community members C. Name of community leader D. Name of the group SECTION B: (40 Marks) Answer all questions in this section. 21. Identify FOUR roles of an external facilitator in conflicting groups in a community. (4 Marks) 22. The effects of conflict can either be functional or dysfunctional. State FOUR functional effects of conflict in community based groups. (4 Marks) 23. In community work, a stakeholder is an individual, group or party that impacts the outcome of the group’s activity. List FIVE stakeholders of community based groups. (5 Marks) 24. Community based groups are rampant in most communities. Name FOUR types of community based groups in Kenya. (4 Marks) 25. Documentation is the process of keeping and using of records of the group activities to assist in informed decision making. Highlight FOUR benefits of documenting community based group activities. (4 Marks) 26. Identify FOUR roles of a community development worker in the community based groups. (4 Marks) 27. Mention FOUR characteristics of community based groups. (4 Marks) 28. Highlight THREE impacts of community based groups in Kenya. (3 Marks) 29. Outline FOUR roles of the government in managing community resources. (4 Marks) 30. Outline FOUR advantages of using a questionnaire as an assessment tool in management of resources. (4 Marks)   SECTION C: (40 Marks) Answer any two questions from this section. 31. Group leaders provide focus in the whole process of group functioning. a) Analyze FIVE ways of identifying leaders in community based groups. (10 Marks) b) Describe FIVE phases of group formation in managing community based group. (10 Marks) 32. A meeting is a major tools used to assist the organization achieve its objectives. a) Explain FIVE Characteristics of an effective community based group objective. (10 Marks) b) Evaluate FIVE components of a

Manage Community Based Groups Nov/Dec 2023 Past Paper (L 5) – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.You have THREE (3) hours to answer all the questions. 2.Marks for each question are as indicated in the brackets 3.The paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. 4.Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 7 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.   SECTION A 🙁 20 Marks) Answer ALL questions in this section. Each question carries one mark. 1. Child protection networks refers to ___________________________________________ A. Organizations strengthening the economic base of poor children in the community B. Agencies meant to fundraise for purposes of building the capacity of children C. A variety of structures involved in child protection programming, policy and coordination work D. A collection of organizations meant to educate children on child abuse matters 2. A _____________________ is a need assessment tool used in child care and support process. A. Sampling frame B. Check list C. Timesheet D. Graph 3. Under the Constitution of Kenya, 2010 and the Children’s Act, 2001, who is a child? A. A person below 18 years of age B. Any school going person C. A person over 18 but are not able to fully take care or protect themselves D. An unemployed graduate 4. For child welfare programs to effectively deliver their services, they are guided by a set of values and principles. Which of these is NOT a child welfare principle? A. Principle of beneficence B. Principle of child safety and well being C. Principle of maleficence D. Principle of collaboration 5. Maltreatment of children has been a common tendency in most families. Which of the following is a characteristic of a caregiver who is likely to maltreat a child? A. A stay at home care giver B. A care giver experience financial difficulties C. A caregiver working far from home D. A care giver in the military profession 6. The following are the activities of child welfare services in Kenya EXCEPT? A. Engaging a healthy lifestyles B. Guidance and counseling C. Rehabilitation D. Monitoring the child psychomotor development 7. The main factor contributing to child maltreatment is_________________________ A. Lack of education B. Poverty C. Lack of adequate parental skills D. Polygamy 8. Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a child protection system? A. Law and policies B. Skilled work force C. Adequate funding D. Parental consent 9. __________________________ is an indicator of a child abuse. A. Excessive playing B. Bed-wetting or bed soiling that has no medical cause C. Watching television for long periods of time D. Excessive eating of food 10. Monitoring of child welfare programs is crucial because _____________________ A. It helps minimize the quality of services offered B. Identify the budget for personal needs C. It provides a protective environment for children D. It helps maintain the program activities without changes 11. The main objective of carrying out research in child welfare programs is to _________ A. Collecting problems for case studies B. Collecting data C. Collecting money D. Counseling clients 12. _________________________ is a child protection policy document in Kenya. A. Social work Act B. The Bible C. Children Act D. Dictionary 13. Which of the following is NOT an impact of maltreatment on children? A. Low self esteem B. Exhibit extremely passive behavior C. Frequent nightmares D. Good performance in school 14. The main role of a social welfare worker in a children’s home is to_________ A. Prepare and implement a care plan B. Undertake domestic chores for the children C. Provide medical care D. Legally adopt the children 15. A complete standard report form in child care should include; A. Educational background B. Details of the concern, allegation or incidents C. Financial status of the client D. Doctor’s recommendations 16. Which of these is an honor-based abuse in child welfare programs? A. Assisting a child to file a case B. Discrimination C. Female genital mutilation D. Lack of child protection policies 17. Which of the following is an example of emotional child abuse? A. Setting unreasonable expectations B. Phone calls, text messages, or other interactions that are sexual in nature C. Severely shaking a child D. Leaving a young child at home alone without a caregiver 18. ____________________refers to the use of children for personal gain, advantage, gratification or profit often resulting in an unjust, cruel and harmful treatment of the child A. Child abuse B. Discrimination C. Child violence D. Child exploitation 19. Yelling, swearing, continuously arguing, interrupting, put downs, using loud and threatening language and tone to cause fear or name calling are examples of ____________________ A. Emotional Abuse B. Verbal Abuse C. Sexual Abuse D. Physical Abuse 20. While preparing a child identification checklist, which of these components should NOT be included? A. Issues at hand B. Monitoring of the risk C. Condition of the child D. Child safety   SECTION B: (40 Marks) Answer ALL Questions in this section. 21. In Kenya, children in need of care and protection and those in conflict with the law are received in different institutions. Name THREE institutions receiving such categories of children. (3 Marks) 22. Propose FIVE strategies that would be used to minimize the cases of child abuse in the society. (5 Marks) 23. State THREE functions of child welfare systems in child service delivery. (3 Marks) 24. Children face a lot of challenges at the family level but most of them are reluctant to disclose these issues to the child welfare officers. Suggest FIVE reasons why children fail to disclose their problem. (5 Marks) 25. The Government of Kenya has been committed to the protection and wellbeing of the child. List FIVE laws that have been enacted by the Parliament in regard to child protection. (5 Marks) 26. Mention FOUR ways through which a social worker can use to monitor and follow up on a child abuse case. (4 Marks) 27. List FOUR ways of storing information collected during

Carry Out Child Welfare Programs Nov/Dec 2023 Past Paper (L 5) – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has three sections A, B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are as indicated. 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of 7 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: (20 Marks) Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries one mark. 1. Which one is NOT a type of need in home based care and support services? A. Felt needs B. Expressed need C. Normative need D. Group need 2. ___________ is a key responsibility of all health care workers aimed to support the best interest of patients and help them obtain quality care. A. Advocacy B. Counseling C. Representation D. Advising 3. Capacity building for home based care is very important for its success. Which one of the following is the key reason for capacity building? A. To lengthen life of the clients B. To increase financial support C. To improve skills, knowledge and the effectiveness of home-based workers D. To mobilize the community members 4. The first requirement for home based care is to ensure that? A. Hospitals are well equipped B. People are well educated C. There is enough funding D. Basic needs are met 5. Documentation of home based care activities is very vital. Which of these is the best method for documenting home based and support services? A. Narrative documentation B. Problem oriented documentation C. Computerized documentation D. Focus charting documentation 6. The key pillar of stakeholder’s analysis is _______________________ A. Organization objectives B. Stakeholder agency C. System roles D. Power and influence 7. ____________ is NOT a key element of information dissemination in home based care. A. The purpose of the outreach B. Stakeholders C. Message to be shared D. Method of sharing the message 8. The main objective of home based care is A. To promote and maintain good health B. To assess home based care and support services C. To monitor home based care activities D. To recruit additional team members 9. Basic nursing care includes the following EXCEPT? A. Wound cleaning B. Nutrition C. Technical support D. Bathing 10. Who is NOT the target audience of care giver in home based care and support activities? A. Parents B. Relatives C. Children D. Spouses 11. Which is the main aim of monitoring in home based care and support activities. A. To monitor the oxygen level B. To track a patients temperature C. Assess blood pressure D. To prevent failure and reduce maintenance costs 12. Focusing on home- based care program and setting of health priorities is carried out based on? A. The assessment findings B. Organization policy C. Individual care plan D. Government requirements 13. The core value in home based care is ____________________ A. Compassion B. Safeguarding and duty of care C. Promoting discriminatory practices D. Confidentiality 14. What is the effective way of engaging stakeholders in home-based care? A. Bribing them B. Building partnerships and consensus C. Use of praises D. Use of presents 15. The government plays a key role in mobilizing the required resources for home based care. Which of the following is a role of the government? A. Creating a supportive policy environment B. Identifying the primary or alternative caregiver C. Making the initial diagnosis D. Collaborating with existing agencies 16. Which one of the following is NOT part of home based care? A. Psychological support and counseling B. Palliative care C. Curative care D. Basic physical care 17. _____________ is a method of data presentation in home based care and support services. A. Sampling B. Tabulation C. Questionnaire D. Form 18. The following are the methods of data collection. Which one is NOT? A. Direct observation B. Interview C. Questionnaire D. Graphs 19. Which one of the following is a major challenge of home-based care programs? A. Inadequate funds B. Stigmatization C. Poor cooperation D. Communication 20. Which one of the following should be considered when allocating roles in home based care and services? A. Organization’s Objectives B. Donations C. Funds D. External Influence SECTION B: (40 Marks) Answer all questions in this section. 21. List FOUR methods for identifying community leaders. (4 marks) 22. Need Assessment in Home Based Care involves identification of the actual needs of the people. Mention FOUR tools used in collecting data for determining individual and community needs. (4 marks) 23. Identify THREE challenges experienced by patients in Home Based Care. (3 marks) 24. Home based care workers collects information, analyze the findings and prepares reports on the same. Give FOUR methods of disseminating of the report findings to the community stakeholders. (4 marks) 25. State THREE indicators used in monitoring home based care and support activities. (3 marks) 26. For effective implementation of home based care programs, social workers are tasked with various responsibilities. Identify FOUR the responsibilities of a home based care worker. (4 marks) 27. A care plan outlines a person’s assessed care needs and how you will meet those needs to help them stay at home. Name FIVE components of an effective care plan. (5 marks) 28. List FOUR key community resource persons or groups with whom a home based care practitioner can work in order to promote home-based care activities. (4 marks) 29. Identify FOUR benefits of carrying out community needs assessment during home based care. (4 marks) 30. Counseling provides both emotional and psychological support to people in need. Identify FIVE types of home-based care counseling. (5 marks) SECTION C: (40 Marks) Answer any two questions from this section. 31. Home based care is provided to the clients within the community; hence the community must participate in the whole process. a) Explain FOUR resources needed for effective Home-Based Care implementation. (8 marks) b) Discuss SIX benefits of community mobilization during home based care programs. (12 marks) 32. A social worker may not be able

Perform Home Based Care and Support Nov/Dec 2023 Past Paper (L 5) – Click to view Perform Home Based Care and Support March/April 2023 Past Paper (L 5) – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.You have THREE (3) hours to answer all the questions. 2.Marks for each question are as indicated in the brackets 3.The paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. 4.Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 7 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: (20 Marks) Answer ALL questions in this section. Each question carries one Mark 1. _________________are single issues or events that lead to a dramatic escalation in conflict, particularly violent conflict. A. Triggers B. Catalysts C. Extinguishers D. Moderators 2. ______________is the type of conflict that occurs within an individual such as use of time, choice of partner, moral questions, goals and aspirations. A. Inter-Personal Conflict. B. Intra-Personal Conflict. C. Intra-Group Conflict D. Inter-Group Conflict. 3. Which of the following is NOT a mediation guideline? A. Maintain neutrality B. Probe until someone accepts responsibility for the issue C. Work to ensure equal talk time D. Establish an action plan 4. __________________is a conflict management style where a middle ground that will partially please all parties is found. A. Compromising B. Avoiding C. Accommodating D. Collaborating 5. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of conflict? A. Perception B. Disruption of tasks C. Something that is cared about D. Negative effects 6. ___________________ needs to be attended to while encouraging positive and constructive communication during conflict resolution. A. People focus B. Emotional pleas C. Maintain subjectivity D. Free discussion 7. The following statements are a reflection of conflict perspective EXCEPT? A. Society as a struggle for resource and power. B. Change is inevitable, often beneficial and can be violent. C. Society is viewed as a complex system of parts that interact to perform various necessary functions. D. Conflict between classes determines social change 8. Which of the following is a negative effect of conflict? A. Generation of new ideas B. Building of relationships C. Emotional torture D. Maintains respect among individuals 9. The statements below are often used to describe the conflict resolution process. Which one is correct? A. Don’t ignore conflict B. Start with a compliment C. Offer guidance, not solutions D. Check if the conflict persists 10. People experiencing conflict associate with the following feelings EXCEPT? A. Shock B. Confusion C. Anger D. Certainty 11. ______________ refers to supporting people at risk of conflict in order to end direct violence. A. Peace building B. Co-existence C. Social Change D. Relationship building 12. ___________________refers to a type of conflict which is associated with obstruction of the achievement of goals of a group. A. Intergroup Conflict B. Destructive conflict C. Realistic conflict D. Social Identity 13. ___________________ is a healthy way of responding to conflict. A. Feeling fearful B. Resentful reactions C. Respectful reactions D. Explosive 14. The process of developing formal procedures for working through internal conflicts within community organization is called _________________________ A. Staff selection B. Policy formulation C. Selective communication D. Side taking 15. Collaborating conflict resolution approach is also referred to as a _______________ A. Win-win approach B. Lose- lose approach C. Win-lose approach D. Lose-win approach 16. __________________ is a form of arbitration in conflict management. A. Domestic arbitration. B. International arbitration C. Binding and non-binding arbitration. D. Customary arbitration. 17. ____________________is NOT a possible outcome which can result from successful conflict resolution. A. Compromise with a full agreement B. Compromise with avoidance C. Compromise with partial agreement D. Compromise with no agreement but acceptance 18. An effective leader in conflict management should be? A. Hesitance B. Indecisiveness C. Receptive D. Personalization 19. Which of the following statement about conflict resolution is TRUE? A. There is no distinction between difference and disagreements. B. Differences cannot become disagreements when space is limited C. Conflicts are resolved more easily when you are heated up D. When disagreements heat up, they become conflicts. 20. The following categories of individuals influence conflict in the society EXCEPT? A. The military B. Community leaders C. Legitimate Child D. Criminal group SECTION B: (40 Marks) Answer ALL Questions in this section. 21. Define the term conflict. (2 Marks) 22. Name FOUR forms of violence in the society. (4 Marks) 23. State FIVE causes of conflicts in the community. (5 Marks) 24. When a dispute arises, one the best course of action is negotiation to resolve the disagreement. List THREE goals of negotiation. (3 Marks) 25. Cite FOUR principles that inform a good conflict analysis process, approach and methodology. (4 Marks) 26. Where there is time or security constraints, Civil Society Organizations (CSOs) can help provide valuable support to conflict resolution by facilitating consultations and gathering data from inaccessible groups. Mention FIVE secondary sources of conflict data. (5 Marks) 27. The main challenge of identifying the causes of conflict is finding the main root cause of it. Give FOUR root causes of conflict. (4 Marks) 28. Propose FOUR roles of women in conflict prevention. (4 Marks) 29. Outline FIVE components of a conflict resolution report. (5 Marks) 30. Conflict is regarded as functional or dysfunctional. Identify FOUR positive effects of conflicts. (4 Marks) SECTION C: (40 Marks) Answer any TWO questions from this section. 31. There are several distinct types of potential conflicts experienced in the society. a) Evaluate FIVE types of conflict in the community. (10 Marks) b) Describe FIVE phases of the conflict process. (10 Marks) 32. Managing the conflict involves defusing any strong emotion involved in the conflict and enabling the disputing parties to understand their differences and similarities. a) Discuss FIVE conflict resolution strategies. (10 Marks) b) Summarize FIVE benefits of conflict analysis. (10 Marks) 33. You are building a new playground for your town’s elementary school. You disagree with the supervisor about what kinds of materials you’ll use to build the playground. The supervisor wants to use chemical-treated wood, but you feel it’s unsafe. You both agree to seek support from a third party. a) Identify

Undertake Conflict Resolution and Management Nov/Dec 2023 Past Paper – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has three sections A, B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are as indicated. 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of 6 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (20 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries one Mark. 1. Which of the following is a good feature of an effective policy? A. General B. Biased C. Flexible D. Compound 2. The following are advocacy tools EXCEPT? A. Research B. Media C. Information D. Propaganda 3. Several factors influence policy making process. Which one DOES NOT? A. Government regulations B. Emotional influence C. Availability of resources D. Cultural factors 4. Which of the following is a type of mass media used during advocacy process? A. Target group B. The government C. Stakeholders D. Local Television channel 5. Which of the following is NOT a type of advocacy? A. Self-advocacy B. Youth advocacy C. Research advocacy D. Consumer protection advocacy 6. What is the first step in advocacy process? A. Problem identification B. Resource mobilization C. Building partnerships D. Evaluation of the process 7. Which of the following is a factor that influences the choice of mass media during advocacy process? A. Demand of the mass media B. Politics C. Risk D. Campaign 8. Mobilizing public support through holding rallies, protest or advert campaigns is referred to as? A. Direct lobbying B. Grassroots lobbying C. Legal advocacy D. Research and analysis policy 9. Counselling of target groups in advocacy may involve therapeutic relationship between the counsellor and the counselee whereby both participate interactively to come up with solutions to the presented issues. This type of counselling is referred to as-: A. Participative counselling B. Group counselling C. Marital counselling D. Individual counselling 10. Efforts to influence government officials to adopt a particular policy position is known as___________? A. Lobbying B. Advocacy C. Policy making D. Research 11. What process involves influencing public policy through activities such as educating the public about an issue, mobilizing support for a cause, or contacting elected officials? A. Policy research B. Advocacy C. Lobbying D. Professional support 12. Which of the following is NOT a documentation tool in advocacy? A. Minutes of a meeting B. Data and statistics C. Visual aids D. Peaceful demonstration 13. Advocacy depends on various techniques. Which of the following is a negative technique? A. Engaging in public outreach B. Using effective communication strategy C. Encouraging destruction of properties of opposing parties D. Building a network of supporters 14. The following are roles played by lobbyist in advocacy activities EXCEPT? A. Serving personal interests B. Communicating with the media C. Building relationships with government officials D. Researching and analyzing legislation and regulations 15. Which chapter of the Kenyan Constitution does Human Rights fall? A. Five B. Seven C. Two D. Four 16. Collection and analysis of data on a particular policy is known as -: A. Policy formulation B. Policy research C. Policy implementation D. Statistics 17. Building consensus is important in lobbying. Which of following is NOT? A. Increased legitimacy B. Reducing conflict C. Enhancing better understanding D. Unwillingness to compromise 18. Which of the following is the LEAST factor to consider when identifying a target group in advocacy? A. The available resources B. The strategy to be used C. The goal D. Political alignment 19. The following are important areas of advocacy in Kenya EXCEPT? A. Marginalization of tribes B. Distribution of resource C. Electoral campaigns D. Use of public funds. 20. Which of the following is an ethical consideration in social work advocacy? A. Judgmental B. Coercion C. Social justice D. Human rights violation SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. 21. According to Universal Declaration and International Standards for Human Rights, violation of human rights may be in various forms. State FIVE actions categorized as human rights violation. (5 marks) 22. Identify THREE causes of Gender Based Violence in the society. (3 marks) 23. Mention FIVE techniques used in developing a good advocacy plan. (5 marks) 24. List FOUR methods of data collection. (4 marks) 25. Data collected during advocacy process requires a thorough analysis to provide guidance on further actions to be taken. Highlight FIVE methods of data analysis. (5 marks) 26. State FIVE roles of research in advocacy. (5 marks) 27. Identify FOUR factors that may influence the adoption of policy findings by policy makers. (4 marks) 28. Mass media plays a vital role in advocacy. Highlight THREE roles of media in advocacy. (3 marks) 29. Give THREE objectives of carrying out advocacy activities. (3 marks) 30. List THREE stakeholders in the advocacy process. (3 marks) SECTION C: (40 MARKS) Answer any two questions from this section. 31. Advocacy issues are often based on protecting the rights of human beings. a) Discuss FIVE advocacy issues in the contemporary society. (10 marks) b) Analyze FIVE benefits if advocacy in the society. (10 marks) 32. Advocacy and lobbying provides an avenue for assisting the vulnerable people in the society by ensuring that their rights are observed. a) Explain FIVE factors to consider during the implementation of social assistance programs. (10 marks) b) Discuss FIVE challenges encountered when advocating for social change. (10 marks) 33. Effective collaborative partnerships in advocacy and lobbying promotes actions that improves the achievement of goals, a) Elaborate FIVE elements if effective partnership. (10 marks) b) Explain FIVE benefits of documentations of activities during advocacy and lobbying. (10 marks)