June 12, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 2. The paper consists of TWO sections: A & B. 3. Do not write on the question paper. 4. A separate answer booklet will be provided. This paper consists of 3 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (40 MARKS) (Answer ALL questions in this section) 1. State FOUR functions of Environment (4 Marks) 2. Identify FOUR characteristics of hazardous materials. (4 Marks) 3. Identify FOUR benefits of pollution prevention (4 Marks) 4. State FOUR causes of indoor air pollutants at workplaces (4 Marks) 5. Outline FOUR techniques of processing of solid waste (4 Marks) 6. Resource depletion is one of the major global environmental challenges. Highlight FOUR major causes of resource depletion (4 Marks) 7. List FOUR factors that influence climate change on the earth. (4 Marks) 8. State FOUR advantages of renewable energy resources (4 Marks) 9. a) Define Sustainable Development (2 Marks) b) State its TWO important components (2 Marks) 10. Identify FOUR benefits of developing a resource conservation plan. (4 Marks)   SECTION B: (60 MARKS) (Answer ANY THREE questions in this section) 11. You have been appointed to advice staff and the management working in a plastic manufacturing industry on analysis of resource flow through different parts of its production process (a) Explain FIVE importance of adopting circular economy (10 Marks) (b) Discuss FIVE disadvantages of adopting linear economy (10 Marks) 12. Recently, there has been rampant violation of environmental laws in Kenya (a) Describe FIVE treaties signed by the Kenyan government which are key in the protection and conservation of environmental resources (10 Marks) (b) Explain FIVE challenges facing National Environment Management Authority (NEMA) in the conservation of our environment (10 Marks) 13. As the chair of the environmental committee in the County, you have been invited to give a speech on conserving water in the county. Plan your speech by; a) Explaining FIVE challenges facing water conservation (10 Marks) b) Discussing FIVE techniques you will recommend for water conservation (10 Marks) 14. You have been deployed in a County Government as an environmental officer. One of the emerging challenges you will encounter is poor electronic waste disposal a) Describe FIVE advantages of incineration as a best waste disposal option (10 Marks) b) Discuss FIVE advantages of recycling as a best method of e-waste disposal (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. Marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). 2. This paper consists of THREE sections: A, B & C. 3. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of 6 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (20 MARKS) Answer ALL questions, each question is 1 mark 1. Select the most appropriate method of disposing hazardous household waste A. Put them in a leak-proof container in the trash B. Carefully pour them down the drain C. Read the labels to see how to dispose of each D.Bury them in the yard 2. Identify the most dangerous environmental effect of poor disposal of hazardous waste. A. Air pollution B. Contamination of groundwater C. Increased use of land for landfills D. Noise pollution 3. _________ Pollutants are relatively harmless. A. Industrial B. Thermal C. Biodegradable D. Non-biodegradable 4. Select the principle act which guides environmental management in Kenya A. Water Act B. Wildlife protection Act C. Environmental Management Co-ordination Act D. Forest Act 5. Identify the first R in 3R’s principle of waste management A. Reduce B. Replenish C. Reuse D. Recycle 6. Identify an example of a non-renewable resource from the following: A. Air B. Fossil fuel C. Water D. Sun 7. Identify a head protection gear. A. Safety spectacles B. Face screens C. Helmet D. Goggles 8. Select a source of carbon dioxide from the following: A. Respiration of living things B. Bacteria C. Atomic power stations D. Nuclear explosions 9. Solar energy can be classified as a resource based on what criteria? A. Based on their renewability B. Based on their period C. Based on their source of temperature D. Based on their development stage 10. Identify the major cause of climate change A. Flooding B. Green-house gases C. Drought D. Crop failure 11. Choose a major effect of deforestation in the Arid Semi-Arid lands of Kenya. A. Desertification B. Flooding C. Industrialization D. Urbanization 12. Identify a problem caused by water hyacinth in Lake Victoria. A. Increased oxygen in water B. Death of aquatic animals C. Loss of food D. Flooding 13. There has been an outbreak of common cold in a work station, choose the role of the employer in minimizing the spread among employees. A. Training staff on use and handling PPEs B. Ensure the company is complying with work safety regulations C. Reports damaged PPEs D. Allow employees to work in shifts 14. Select an example of a greenhouse gas from the following: A. Nitrogen B. Oxygen C. Methane D. Carbon monoxide 15. select the most preferred option in solid waste management according to waste hierarchy A. Prevention B. Reuse C. Disposal D. Recycle 16. Select a license issued by National Environmental Management Authority before project implementation A. Fire safety B. Effluent discharge C. Environmental Impacts Assessment D. Import-export for controlled substances 17. Acid rain is caused by __________ A. Carbon dioxide B. Nitrogen C. Nitrogen oxide D. Ozone 18. __________ is caused by exposure to nuclear radiation A. Cancer B. Common cold C. Respiratory diseases D. Ulcers 19. What is the major source of Methane gas? A. Incineration B. Composting C. Landfill D. Burying 20. Rio Declaration refers to _______________ A. Earth summit in June ,1992 B. Ramsar Conference C. Stockholm Conference 1972 D. Brundtland report   SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer ALL questions in this section 21. State FOUR advantages of using an incinerator in disposing biomedical waste (4 Marks) 22. List FOUR tools used in collecting environmental data in field survey. (4 Marks) 23. State FOUR effects of air pollution on human health (4 Marks) 24. Enumerate FOUR criteria for selecting storage tanks and containers for hazardous waste (4 Marks) 25. Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable resources (4 Marks) 26. State FOUR benefits of waste minimization (4 Marks) 27. Differentiate between data collection and data analysis stages in resource consumption review (4 Marks) 28. List FOUR steps followed when developing an environmental resource efficiency system (4 Marks) 29. State FOUR characteristics of hazardous waste. (4 Marks) 30. Highlight FOUR sources of noise pollution in the environment (4 Marks)   SECTION C: (40 MARKS) Answer ANY TWO questions in this section 31. EMCA 1999 has various principles that guide its successful implementation, however it’s still faced with many challenges. a) Explain FIVE principles of environmental law in Kenya. (10 Marks) b) Discuss FIVE limitations to the successful implementation of the Environmental Legislation in Kenya (10 Marks) 32. You have been appointed as a lead EIA expert in a mega construction project. For the successful monitoring and implementation of the project, stakeholder engagement is crucial. In regards to this; a) Explain FIVE importance of engaging diverse stakeholder in environmental project implementation (10 Marks) b) Explain FIVE challenges of public participation in implementing environmental program (10 Marks) 33. Businesses that adopt sustainable practices can provide more benefits than costs to the local communities. a) Discuss FIVE advantages of business associated with the adopting of environmentally business practices. (10 Marks) b) Explain FIVE steps taken in developing purchasing strategies (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 2. The paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. 3. Do not write on the question paper. 4. A separate answer booklet will be provided. This paper consists of 4 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A (10 MARKS) Answer ALL the questions in this section Each correct answer is 1 Mark 1. Select a non-renewable energy from the following A. Coal B. Fuel cells C. Wind power D. Wave Power 2. The removal of carbon dioxide from earth’s atmosphere and the provision of long term storage of carbon in the terrestrial biosphere is known as ______________ A. Carbon fixing B. Carbon sequestration C. Carbon dating D. Photosynthesis 3. Identify the effect of greenhouse gases on the average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere. A. Decreases B. First increases and then decreases C. Remains the same D. Increases 4. Choose an environmental governing body in Kenya A. NEMA B. Ministry of Environment C. Government of Kenya D. EMCA 5. Which of the following is the most ideal disposal method for hazardous waste from Uranium? A. Landfills B. Injection wells C. Recycling D. Sea dumping 6. ______________ is made up of smoke and fog A. Cloud B. Smog C. Frost D. Haze 7. Tendency of pollutants to become concentrated in successive trophic levels is known as? A. Bio piracy B. Biorhythm C. Bio magnification D. Bioremediation 8. Select a secondary air pollutant from the following types. A. Carbon monoxide B. Sulphur dioxide C. Ozone D. Carbon dioxide 9. 3R’s principles in waste management should be in which order? A. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle B. Reuse, Reduce, Recycle C. Recycle, Reuse Reduce D. Reduce, Recycle, Reuse 10. The concept of sustainable development encourages ______________ A. Form of growth that meets basic needs B. Preservation of the resources for the need of future generations C. A change in all aspects of life D. Growth to meet current needs, preservation for the needs of future and change in lifestyle SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer ALL questions in this section 11. Identify FOUR techniques employed by processing industries to minimize waste (4 Marks) 12. List FIVE physical hazards encountered in a biological laboratory (5 Marks) 13. State FOUR types of Personal Protective Equipment (PPEs) used in the mechanical workshop for protecting eyes (4 Marks) 14. Enumerate FOUR steps involved in developing an environmental resource efficiency system (4 Marks) 15. Mention FOUR effects of inorganic substances in water (4 Marks) 16. Name FOUR benefits of using resource efficiency systems in organizations (4 Marks) 17. Mention first FIVE steps taken in developing purchasing strategies (5 Marks) 18. State FIVE man-made sources of nuclear hazards (5 Marks) 19. List FIVE ways of controlling global warming (5 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has three sections A and B. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are as indicated. 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of 3 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (40 Marks) Attempt all questions in this section. 1. During career guidance for finalist trainees, they identified a sole proprietorship as the most form of business organization. State FOUR advantages associated with a sole proprietorship. (4 Marks). 2. Lack of motivation is a major cause of low staff morale of employees in a business. Mention THREE useful motivational theories the business can use as a guide to decide on the best way to motivate its staff. (3 Marks) 3. Identify TWO factors that affect the product demand of a commodity. (3 Marks) 4. Business environment refers to all the components that affect a business. In each type of the following type of business environment, name TWO factors that constitute each environment. (4 Marks) a). Internal Environment b). External Environment 5. You have been invited to participate in the development of an entrepreneurship hand book. Highlight THREE characteristics of an entrepreneur that you will include in the hand out. (3 Marks) 6. A candidate was asked in an interview to mention ways in which one can become an entrepreneur. State FOUR ways you would expect the candidate to have given as responses. (4 Marks) 7. Outline THREE challenges that an entrepreneur would face when starting a small business. (3 Marks) 8. Name FOUR factors that an entrepreneur would consider when evaluating a viable business opportunity. (4 Marks) 9. In an assessment, trainees are supposed to identify the entry requirements into self-employment. Point out THREE entry requirements into self-employment. (3 Marks) 10. Business linkages are the channels through which enterprises influence each other’s economic performance. Identify TWO types of business linkages that an enterprise can enter into. (2 Marks) 11. Entrepreneurship trainees had a discussion about the differences between an entrepreneur and a business person. Differentiate between an entrepreneur and a business person. (4 Marks) 12. Outline THREE advantages of a good business plan. (3 Marks)   SECTION B: (60 MARKS) Attempt any three questions from this section 13. a). In a social media group which you are an active member, there was a discussion about self-employment. As the group administrator, discuss FIVE importance of self-employment you would discuss. (10 Marks) b). The growth of entrepreneurship in Kenya has been facing several challenges. Discus FIVE challenges to entrepreneurial development in Kenya. (10 Marks) 14. a). After college you were appointed as the legal officer at Dot Com Enterprise. Explain to the management FIVE legal aspects that are vital to the operations of the business. (10 Marks) b). Your county has organized for an innovation trade fair and you have been requested to give a presentation on innovation. Discuss FIVE examples of innovation strategies that you would discuss. (10 Marks) 15. a). A TVET institution is in the process of development of a training manual. You have been allocated the topic sources of business ideas. Explain FIVE sources that you would include in the manual. (10 Marks) b). A young graduate has a dream of starting an enterprise and has approached you to advice on business finance. Explain FIVE factors that should be considered when sourcing finances to start an enterprise. (10 Marks) 16. a). Communication is always effective when it is carried out in accordance with principles of effective communication. Explain FIVE barriers to effective communication in a business. (10 Marks) b). Explain FIVE roles of ICT in business growth and development. (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has three sections A,B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are as indicated. 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of SEVEN (7) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: 20 MARKS Attempt ALL questions, each question carries one mark. 1. You are part of team expected to give a presentation on importance of customer feedback to a business. Which of the following statement would you not include in the presentation? A. It assists in customer classification. B. It helps measure consumer satisfaction. C. It gives insights for a better customer experience D. It helps a business to have high customer retention. 2. From the list below, identify a capability necessary for setting up and managing a successful business enterprise. A. Procrastination B. Imitating C. Marketing Management D. Fair remuneration. 3. The following are promotional strategies that can be used by an entrepreneur to promote business products that are facing stiff competition except? A. Advertising B. Dispatching C. Social media D. Road shows 4. An organisation requested you to explain the elements of communication in the correct sequence. Choose which sequence is correct. A. Sender, Recipient, Feedback, Business message B. Sender, Feedback, Business message, Recipient. C. Sender, Business message, Recipient, Feedback. D. Sender, Recipient, Business message, Feedback 5. Employees in a business have basic rights in a business. ______________ is a basic right of employees in a business enterprise. A. Employees have the right to participate in political party politics. B. Employees have the right to use business resources for their personal needs. C. Employees have the right to file legal complaints against their employer without being punished in any way by their employer. D. Employees have the right to prioritize their personal interests. 6. Choose the set that contains types of shares that a business can sell to willing investors. A. Cumulative, Non-participating preference share, treasury bills and debentures. B. Redeemable, Participating, Non-cumulative preference and premium bonds C. Non-convertible preference shares, Cumulative, Non-participating preference share and debentures. D. Redeemable, Participating, Non-cumulative preference and Convertible shares. 7. Which one of the following does not justify reasons why it is important that an entrepreneur prepares a business plan? A. It protects potential businesses from competition from other businesses. B. Enables potential entrepreneurs to assess viability of their business support unit. C. Enables identification of employee’s needs, skills they should possess, task they will perform and methods of remunerations. D. Assist financial needs and sources of funds. 8. Identify which among the following is a competency in a business that facilitates business operations. A. Being non proactive. B. Convey high integrity and honesty. C. Ability to evade compliance. D. Being risk averse. 9. It is important to prepare departmental and or business budgets because it_________. A. Gives you control over your money B. Helps to fight competition. C. Helps attract and maintain customers. D. Makes it easier to input technology. 10. Innovation strategies are beneficial to business owners because they assist in _________. A. Establishing direction. B. Diverging priorities C. Imitating operations. D. Making many decisions 11. Identify which of the following is not a benefit associated with building a loyal customer base? A. Drive repeat business. B. Customer differentiation. C. Increase revenue D. Create brand ambassadors. 12. You have been appointed to the position of human resource manager in the business. Identify the third step in the problem solving process. A. Evaluate the options B. Identify the issues. C. Select options. D. Monitor and evaluate. 13. A business plan contains one of the following of chapters. A. Business description. B. Coordination C. Planning and management D. Executive summary. 14. Choose from the sets below the correct stages in a consumer decision making process. i. Problem recognition. ii. Purchase decision. iii. Post purchase decision. iv. Information search and evaluation A. i, iii, iv and ii. B. i, iv, ii and iii. C. ii, iv, iii and i. D. i, iv, iii and ii 15. Identify which is a responsibility of ordinary shareholders in a company. A. Ordinary shareholders can initiate liquidation due to business debts. B. Ordinary shareholders share the company dividends before preferential shareholders. C. The owners of the ordinary shareholders earn dividends in perpetuity. D. The ordinary shareholders do not benefit from the residual claim in the event of liquidation 16. You have been requested to prepare a guide on a feasibility study. Which of the following would be included in the guide? A. Executive summary B. Organization plan C. Defining the goals and objectives. D. Roadblocks and alternative solutions 17. __________________ is a characteristic used in market segmentation. A. Demographic B. Topographic C. Infrastructure D. Physiographic 18. Which of the following would you employ to expand market for your product and services in your county? A. Create a plan to enter the market. B. Follow competitor’s trend C. Complain to the authorities. D. Maintain your usual tactics 19. The following are non-wages motivational practises that a business can apply to enhance performance except? A. Paid offs. B. Sick leaves C. Better working conditions D. Free staff career progression. 20. The process of developing new products that over time takeover the market is referred to as? A. Promotion B. Marketing and distribution C. Sales and production D. Creative and innovation SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Attempt ALL questions from this section 21. Motivating employees is a critical aspect of any successful business venture. List THREE measures that maybe taken to motivate employees. (3 Marks) 22. Mention TWO threats in a business environment. (2 Marks) 23. You have been asked to function as a human resource personnel in a business in an acting capacity. Identify THREE duties you would be expected to perform. (3 Marks) 24. Identify THREE principles of communication. (3 Marks) 25. Identify FOUR methods that would be used by a

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.This paper has TWO sections A and B. 2.Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 3.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 4.Answer all questions in the answer booklet. 5.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 6.Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of FOUR (4) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that All pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (10 Marks) Attempt ALL questions, each question carries one mark. 1. Which of the following set contains trait of an entrepreneur? A. Risk taker, calm and persuasive. B. Persuasive, need for achievement and goal oriented. C. Calm, hardworking and persuasive. D. Hard working, imitative and risk taker. 2. The following are the causes of failures in small enterprises except? A. Mismanagement B. Poor planning C. Harsh environment D. Good policies 3. Business ideas are vital in every business. ________________ is a suitable source of business idea for a grade six graduate. A. Social media. B. Shows and exhibition. C. Journals D. International conferences 4. Which of the following shows the process of creating a new product? A. Business model B. Modelling C. Creative flexibility D. Innovation 5. An individual who initiates, creates and manages a new business can be called. A. A leader B. A manager C. A professional D. An entrepreneur 6. Goods or service reach the market place through? A. Marketing channels B. Multilevel C. Monopolies D. Multiplication 7. Which of the following is not an inventory in a business? A. Raw materials B. Finished products C. Machines D. Consumable 8. A Family business owner is always interested to handover the change of his business to ___________. A. Administration officer B. Next generation C. Professional managers D. Trustees 9. From the list below, identify method which best motivates an entrepreneur to start a new business venture. A. A desire to be dependent B. Risk taking C. Corruption. D. Financial rewards 10. Which industrial sector promotes small scale businesses and has lower barriers to market entry. A. Service B. Manufacturing C. Distribution D. Agriculture SECTION B (40 MARKS) Attempt ALL questions in this section 11. State FIVE entrepreneurial competencies that enable an entrepreneur to operate a business. (5 Marks) 12. Mention FOUR types of financial documents that are important for a small business enterprise. (4 Marks) 13. What does the acronym SWOT in entrepreneurship stand for? (4 Marks) 14. Employees are the engine behind successful businesses. Business owners must maintain a good relationship with them. Determine FOUR ways that business owners can build a relationship with the employees. (4 Marks) 15. Outline the importance of information communication technology in an enterprise. (4 Marks) 16. During product promotion, list FOUR circumstances which make personal selling a preferred method of selling promotional products. (4 Marks) 17. Identify FIVE gaps that may create a market for business products. (5 Marks) 18. State FOUR reasons why a business plan is a must for a business. (4 Marks) 19. You have been asked to advice on communication. Give the correct sequence in the communication process. (6 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. This paper has two sections A and B. 2. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 3. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 4. Answer all questions in the answer booklet. 5. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 6. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of FOUR (4) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that All pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (40 MARKS) Answer ALL questions in this section. 1. Identify THREE ways in which computers have made work easier in learning institutions. (3 Marks) 2. Differentiate between replying and forwarding an e-mail. (2 Marks) 3. Jane was advised to purchase an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) for her computer. State TWO uses of the device she purchased. (2 Marks) 4. State THREE computer network equipment’s used in networking other than a computer. (3 Marks) 5. Define the term biometric access control as used in data security. (2 Marks) 6. A computer virus is a program which interferes the normal working of the computer systems. Highlight the FOUR computer virus “symptoms”? (4 Marks) 7. Computers nowadays are usually connected majorly through the internet resulting to a global village. The major issue resulting from this is computers being exposed to attacks on the internet which we call cybercrime. Define the term cybercrime. (2 Marks) 8. Outline the procedure for creating an e-mail account. (5 Marks) 9. You are an instructor for a digital media course at a community college. One of your students, Sam, is confused about why a desktop publisher is preferred in designing documents over a word processor. Sam has some experience using word processors like Microsoft Word and Google Docs but has yet to explore desktop publishing software. Explain TWO differences between word processors and desktop publisher. (4 Marks) 10. Differentiate between workbook and worksheet as used in a spreadsheet. (2 Marks) 11. Peter has been tasked to proofread a document created using a word processing program. State the features that he could use to perform each of the following; i. Look for the occurrence of the word “church and change it to “company”. (1 Mark) ii. Correct misspelt words. (1 Mark) 12. The following functions are used in a spreadsheet program: AND, Average, OR, TRUE, IF, AverageIF. Classify them as either statistical or Logical functionS. (6 Marks) 13. Ken created slides in a presentation program. Outline three examples of slide layouts he could have used in the presentation. (3 Marks)   SECTION B: (60 MARKS) (Answer any three questions in this section) 14. a) a. As small business owners, you are aware of the rising threat of computer crimes and the potential risks they pose to your business’s sensitive data. Implementing robust cybersecurity measures is crucial for safeguarding your business’ information and reputation. Considering this, what are FIVE effective methods you can adopt to protect yourself and your business from computer crimes? (10 Marks) b. Discuss FIVE advantages of using wireless transmission media to connect to the internet. (10 Marks) 15. a. Discuss FIVE disadvantages of the internet. (10 Marks) b. A technician was asked to purchase a monitor to be used in a conference room. Explain the FIVE factors that she should consider when purchasing the device. (10 Marks) 16. a. Utility software are the programs used frequently to carry out routine jobs in computer systems. Explain the FIVE types of utility software. (10 Marks) b. Akili Bora enterprise integrated mobile technology into its business practices. Clarify the advantages of embracing this technology by explaining FIVE key benefits. (10 Marks) 17. a. Outline three ways that may be used to format the page background of a document created using a word processing application (3 Marks) b. A secretary previewed a document before printing. Explain two importance of this action (4 Marks) c. The figure below is an extract showing the status of goods supplied and to be taken by a wholesaler. Use it to answer the questions that follows Use the If function to write a formula in cell C3 that would display the text “No action” if the delivery status of the apples is delivered or, the text “Action to be taken” if delivery status is otherwise. (3 Marks) d. Explain FIVE advantages of integrating artificial intelligence (AI) in business processes. (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.The paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. 2.Marks for each question are as indicated in the brackets 3.Do not write on the question paper, all answers should be in written in the answer booklet provided This paper consists of SIX (6) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (20 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries one (1) mark. 1. Which one of the following is a computer security threat? A. Fragmentation B. Data encryption C. Secured system D. Hacking 2. Which type of computer crime describes actions in which the computer is used only to further a criminal end? A. Hacking B. Fraud C. Cracking D. Theft 3. __________ is not a category of computers when classified by functionality? A. Analog computer B. Hybrid computer C. Laptop computer D. Digital computer 4. In internet terminology, IP means? A. Internet provider B. Internet protocol C. Interne procedure D. Internet processor 5. How can one protect computers from malicious software? A. Installing burglar-proof locks B. Setting up strong passwords C. Covering the computers with dust covers D. Installing antivirus 6. Which of the following is not an illegal activity? A. Cracking B. Piracy C. Eavesdropping D. Virus database updating 7. Which software can damage a computer system? A. Microsoft Word B. Microsoft Excel C. Trojan Horse D. Kaspersky 8. __________ is not considered to be utility program. A. Antivirus software B. Screen saver C. Calculator D. Backup utility 9. Which of the following is a correct format of e-mail address? A. name@website@info B. name@website.info C. name.website.com D. www.nameofebsite.com 10. The term internet is defined as ___________ A. Interconnection of networks worldwide B. Collection of information found online C. World wide web D. Websites and web pages 11. Which of the following is the odd one out? A. .pdf B. .xls C. .docx D. .com 12. ___________ is a part of an email. A. Emoji B. Browser C. URL D. Subject 13. Which option allows recipients of an email to see a list of other recipients who received a copy of the same message? A. Bcc B. Cc C. Copy to D. Copy 14. An intersection between a row and a column is known as _____ A. Spreadsheet B. Cell C. Worksheet D. Workbook 15. The feature that automatically takes the cursor to the beginning of the new line in MS word is known as__________ A. Thesaurus B. Autocorrect C. Word wrap D. Auto complete 16. Which paper size below is most suitable when designing a newspaper? A. A1 B. A2 C. A3 D. A4 17. What is a slide? A. A single page of a presentation B. A collection of pages making up a presentation C. An element within a page of a presentation D. A transition effect of a presentation 18. A ____________ network connects personal computers within a small geographical area. A. PAN B. LAN C. MAN D. WAN 19. A program that allows the user to surf through information in the web is called_____ A. Bundles B. Web browser C. Email D. Web pages 20. A slide show presentation is suitable for the activities below except? A. Presenting a proposal to investors B. Demonstrating a procedure in a class C. Conducting a lecture D. Sending mail to the recipients   SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. 21. Define the term computer crime. (2 Marks) 22. Differentiate between the terms hardware and software as used in computers. (2 Marks) 23. Kinato TVC decided to install a computer-based network for use in the college. Advise the college on any FOUR networking devices they may purchase. (4 Marks) 24. Outline THREE disadvantages of prolonged use of a computer. (3 Marks) 25. State any FOUR types of computer viruses. (4 Marks) 26. Describe TWO laws that govern the use of ICT in Kenya. (4 Marks) 27. List any TWO functions of operating systems software. (2 Marks) 28. Explain any TWO editing features available in Microsoft Word. (4 Marks) 29. State any THREE examples of e-mail software. (3 Marks) 30. List any THREE examples of DTP software. (3 Marks) 31. Outline THREE formatting features applied in word processing. (3 Marks) 32. Distinguish between workbook and worksheet as used in spreadsheet. (2 Marks) 33. Highlight TWO factors contributing to internet access and growth in Kenya. (4 Marks) SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer any two (2) questions in this section. 34. a. Explain the difference between the computer primary memory and secondary memory. (4 Marks) b. ABC company is in the process of buying computer hardware. As an ICT expert, advise the management on the factors to consider when purchasing the devices. (10 Marks) c. Discuss THREE advantages of using E-mail as a means of communication. (6 Marks) 35. a. Discuss any FIVE emerging issues or trends in the world of computing. (10Marks) b. Explain FIVE uses of the internet in a learning institution. (6 Marks) c. Distinguish between workbook and worksheet as used in spreadsheet. (4 Marks) 36. a. Discuss the control measures against the following threats to information systems. (10 Marks) i. Piracy ii. Hacking iii. Physical theft iv. Virus v. Natural catastrophes b. Distinguish between “save” and “save as” commands as used in word processors. (4 Marks) c. Explain THREE types of data that maybe entered on Microsoft excel spreadsheet cells. (6 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.This paper has two sections A and B. 2.Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 3.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 4.Answer all questions in the answer booklet. 5.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 6.Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of FOUR (4) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (10 Marks) Answer ALL questions, each question carries (1) mark. 1. Which one of the following is not a component of the central processing unit? A. Control unit B. Arithmetic and logic unit C. Secondary storage D. Main memory 2. Which group consists of output devices only? A. Printer, plotter, monitor B. Mouse, Keyboard, Printer C. Mouse, Keyboard, Monitor D. Plotter, scanner, speaker 3. _____ key is used to exit a program. A. Backspace B. Tab key C. Escape key D. Home key 4. Which of the following is not a category of auxiliary storage? A. Hard disk B. Magnetic tapes C. Random Access Memory D. Diskettes 5. Cache and RAM will lose their contents when the power goes off. They are: A. Non-volatile B. Volatile C. Static D. Dynamic 6. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test. A. Power-On-Self-Test B. Memory test C. RAM test D. Disk drive test 7. _________ is the tangible part of a computer. A. Hardware B. Software C. Mini computer D. Networking 8. Output made up of pictures, sounds, and video is called __________ A. Multimedia B. Graphics C. Hard Copy D. COM 9. A ____________ is a collection of worksheets. A. Formular bar B. Column header C. Workbook D. A cell 10. What is the file extension of the spreadsheet application? A. .docx B. .ppt C. .xlsx D. .jpeg   SECTION B (40 MARKS) Attempt ALL questions in this section 11. Define the term software. (2 Marks) 12. List FOUR peripheral devices. (4 Marks) 13. Define the term hardcopy as used in computers. (2 Marks) 14. What is the meaning of the term computer virus as used in computer security? (2 Marks) 15. List FOUR examples of indicators of computer virus. (4 Marks) 16. Enumerate FOUR types of network topologies. (4 Marks) 17. What is the difference between impact printers and non-impact printers? (4 Marks) 18. List FOUR computer crimes. (4 Marks) 19. Highlight THREE functions of computers in a business environment. (3 Marks) 20. State THREE types of charts used in a spreadsheet program. (3 Marks) 21. Allan intends to insert a picture into a slide. State TWO sources he could get this picture from. (2 Marks) 22. State THREE characteristics of fifth generation computers. (6 Marks)