June 13, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1.This paper has TWO sections A and B. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4.Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 4 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: 10 MARKS Answer ALL questions in this section. Each question carries ONE Mark. 1. The following are web browsers, which one is not. A. Edge B. Chrome C. Java D. Mozilla 2. ____ is an online service that allows users to look for information on the internet. A. Search engine B. Firewall C. Wi-Fi D. Internet Services 3. A cyber-attack in which attackers use fraudulent emails, messages or websites to deceive individuals into disclosing sensitive information A. Trojan horse B. Spoofing C. Phishing D. Hacking 4. Which statement correctly defines the term Internet? A. interconnection of computers B. interconnection of communicating networks C. interconnections of wireless fidelity D. interconnection of routers 5. The process of getting information from the internet and saving it on a computer is known as? A. Uploading B. Saving C. Downloading D. Forwarding 6. _______ is a unique identifier used for locating resources on the internet A. URL B. World Wide Web C. TCP D. IP Protocol 7. Which statement correctly describes a website A. Interconnections of webpages B. Inter-collection of webpages under a single domain C. Word wide web D. An online server where information is stored 8. Tabitha Realized that her webpage was responding slowly and then stopped completely even though her internet was working correctly. Which type of attack was this likely to be A. Hacking B. DoS C. Trojan Horse D. Spoofing 9. The following are ways of protecting an internet user from internet security threats, which one is NOT. A. Virus B. Passwords C. Firewall D. Secure Sites 10. The unique identity of a computer in a computer network is known as? A. MAC address B. IP address C. Computer Number D. Computer BIOS SECTION B: 40 MARKS Answer ALL questions in this section. 11. Several needs must be satisfied to obtain internet access. Outline THREE such criteria. (3 Marks) 12. Makau, an assistant IT Technician, was tasked with protecting the institution’s systems against online risks. Explain TWO ways he might accomplish this. (4 Marks) 13. Jonathan was browsing the internet when he noticed that the web address in the address bar alternated between http and https: Explain the TWO categories he saw. (4 Marks) 14. Malware is software that often interrupts a computer’s regular operation and is widely utilized by cyber thieves. Explain THREE types of malware. (6 Marks) 15. Explain the following terms as used in the internet a) Word wide web (2 Marks) b) Internet Protocol (2 Marks) 16. It is advisable to avoid using public Wi-Fi when doing online shopping. Give THREE reasons for the need for this precaution. (3 Marks) 17. Explain the functions of each of the following parts of an internet browser. a) Bookmark bar (2 Marks) b) Refresh button (2 Marks) 18. The use of the Internet has increased the rate and effectiveness of communication between entities. List THREE mediums of communication over the Internet. (3 Marks) 19. The usage of the internet has resulted in a loss of morals among young people who are active users. Explain the other THREE internet limitations that young people face. (6 Marks) 20. Internet users often experience cyberbullying. State THREE strategies to prevent this cyberbullying. (3 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.This paper has TWO sections A and B. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4.Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 4 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: 10 MARKS Answer ALL questions in this section. Each question carries one Mark. 1. Which tab in the toolbar menu is used to change fonts in MS Word? A. Home B. Format C. Clipboard D. Paragraph 2. Which of the following functions is used to sum a range of cells in MS Excel? A. =ADD() B. =SUM() C. =TOTAL() D. =RANGE() 3. The purpose of Transition Tab in Power Point is to? A. Insert Clip Arts into slide B. Change the slide layout C. Add animation effects between slides D. Add Videos and audios to the slide 4. Otieno wanted to send a similar email to three people and opted to use “Cc” command in the main box. The Cc acronym stands for? A. Copy content B. Carbon copy C. Carbon content D. Content copy 5. Which among the listed objects can be used to enter data in a Microsoft Access database? A. Cell B. Report C. Form D. Field 6. ______ is used for designing publications with predefined layouts in MS Publisher. A. Page Design B. Templates C. Layouts D. Tables 7. The purpose of relationships in MS Access is to? A. Sort the tables B. Define how tables are interconnected C. Specify how database is defined D. Create a backup program of the database 8. Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for rearranging slides? A. Normal B. Slide Show C. Notes Page D. Slide Sorter 9. ‘.docx’ is a file format used to save files in? A. Microsoft Word B. Microsoft Excel C. Microsoft PowerPoint D. Microsoft Publisher 10. The purpose of mail merge feature in MS Word is to? A. Send Emails to contacts B. Combine Publication with data source to personalize letters C. Merge existing publication into single publication D. Create hyperlinks in existing publications SECTION B: 40 MARKS Answer all questions in this section. 11. Differentiate between table and form as used in Microsoft Office Access. (4 Marks) 12. A company wished to introduce emails as a way of communication. List THREE advantages the company is likely to attain from the use of emails. (3 Marks) 13. A trainee wanted to create a presentation and opted to use Microsoft Office PowerPoint. List THREE reasons for this choice. (3 Marks) 14. Using appropriate examples differentiate between absolute and relative cell referencing as used in Microsoft Office Excel. (4 Marks) 15. While creating presentation, James opted to apply slide transition on his presentation. List FOUR transitions he is likely to use. (4 Marks) 16. Describe the following parts of an email a) Spam (2 Marks) b) Compose (2 Marks) 17. Differentiate between primary key and secondary key as used in MS Access. (4 Marks) 18. Explain the functions of the following word processing features. a) Drop Cap option. (2 Marks) b) Watermark. (2 Marks) 19. Describe the following features of MS Publisher a) WordArt. (2 Marks) b) Orientation. (2 Marks) 20. Explain the function of TWO action queries used in Microsoft Access. (4 Marks) 21. Describe Data Validation as used in MS Excel. (2 Marks)

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INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. This paper has TWO sections A and B. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4. Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 4 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: 10 MARKS Answer all questions in this section. 1. Missing slot covers on a computer can cause? A. Over heating B. power surges C. EMI. D. incomplete path for ESD 2. What should be the first action when Microsoft Windows Operating System reports that the hard drive is developing bad sectors? A. Replace the hard drive B. Run DIR command from MS DOS C. Run defrag on the hard drive D. Run scandisk with the “thorough” option 3. After installing a sound card, the system locks up when parallel port tape backup unit is also used. What is most likely the problem? A. IRQ B. DMA C. Detective LPT port D. Defective tape driver 4. A Power protection device that includes a battery and provides a few minutes of power, is called __________ A. Surge suppressor B. A line conditioner C. Generator D. UPS 5. An important first step in trouble shooting which component in a laser printer is causing jam is to. A. Check all voltages B. Look up error codes C. Turn ON the printer D. Note where in the paper path the paper stops 6. To prevent computer from overheating one should_________ A. Remove the CPU fan B. Keep the computer cover closed C. Remove the slot cover from the back D. Switch off the computer 7. Which of the following would be a logical first step in troubleshooting a PC? A. Check the computer CMOS B. Define the circumstances of the problem C. Call the vendor D. Define what applications are being used 8. Among the following options, what could cause a fixed disk error? A. No-CD installed B. bad ram C. slow processor D. Incorrect CMOS settings 9. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the: A. System unit. B. CPU. C. Mainframe. D. Platform. 10. Which would you do first when troubleshooting a faulty monitor? A. Check its connections to the computer and power source B. Use a meter to check the CRT and internal circuitry for continuity C. Power down the monitor, then turn it on again to see if that corrects the problem D. Power down the computer, then turn it on again to see if that corrects the problem   SECTION B: 40 MARKS Answer ALL questions in this section 11. Explain any FIVE common faults in computers (10 Marks) 12. a) What does computer maintenance mean? (2 Marks) b) State any FOUR basic computer maintenance tips for PC users. (4 Marks) c) Highlight any TWO potential risks that repair and maintenance worker faces. (4 Marks) d) Outline any FOUR general guidelines for repairing or trouble-shooting computers (4 Marks) e) Explain any TWO types of computer maintenance? (4 Marks) f) Explain any TWO reasons why Computer Maintenance is Important. (4 Marks) 13. a) Define the term does upgrade as used in computer hardware. (2 Marks) b) Differentiate between upgrade and update and give relevant example in each case respectively. (4 Marks) c) Highlight any TWO advantages and of computer hardware upgrade. (2 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1.This paper has TWO sections A and B Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4.Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 4 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: 10 MARKS Answer ALL questions in this section. Each question carries ONE Mark. 1. A set of programs that consist of a full set of documentation is termed as A. Database packages B. File packages C. Bus packages D. Software packages 2. The two major categories of software include A. Antivirus and utility B. Personal productivity and system C. System and utility D. System and application 3. A program that infects other programs by modifying them is known as A. Search Engine B. Antivirus C. Virus D. Cyber Crime 4. Which of the following is not related to software testing A. Failure B. Error C. Test case D. Test bot 5. Software for organizing storage and retrieval of information is a ____ A. Data warehouse B. Database program C. Database D. Operating system 6. What is a Functional Requirement? A. specifies the tasks the program must complete B. specifies the tasks the program should not complete C. specifies the tasks the program must not work D. specifies the tasks the program is working on 7. Which of the following controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating system? A. Screensaver B. Platform C. Language Translator D. User interface 8. Statistical analysis packages have much in common with A. Presentation packages B. Spreadsheet packages C. Design packages D. Paint packages 9. ____ is known as the translator for low-level programming language. A. Compiler B. Linker C. Loader D. Assembler 10. After choosing a suitable partition for the installation of windows what else should follow? A. Delete that partition B. Select that partition and press the next button C. Press control + Alt + Delete D. Switch off the power supply   SECTION B: 40 MARKS Answer ALL questions 11. a) To guarantee a successful installation, there are essential prerequisites that must be met before installing software. List any FOUR. (4 Marks) b) Explain any THREE functions of an operating system (6 Marks) 12. a) Define the term software testing. (2 Marks) b) Explain the following as used in software installation. (4 Marks) i. Debugging ii. Installer c) What distinctions exist between automated and manual testing? (4 Marks) 13. a) There are several aspects to consider while acquiring software. List any TWO aspects that should be taken into account while purchasing software. (2 Marks) b) To maintain software quality once it has been deployed, developers must constantly adapt it to meet new customer requirements and handle problems customers identify. How long a product lasts on the market depends on developers’ ability to keep up with these maintenance requirements. Explain any FOUR types of changes developers can make when performing maintenance. (8 Marks) 14. a) What is training software? (2 Marks) b) Training of the end users is one of the most important steps for a successful system implementation in any organization which intends to adopt a new system. Discuss FOUR methods that can be used to train users of a new system. (8 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1.This paper has TWO sections A and B. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4.Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 4 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: 10 MARKS Answer ALL questions in this section. Each question carries ONE Mark. 1. Various applications and documents are represented on the Windows desktop by A. Graphs B. Labels C. Icons D. Symbols 2. Which of the following is not an opportunity for ICT A. Programmer B. System administrator C. ICT technician D. Geologist 3. Bluetooth is an example of A. Personal area network B. local area network C. Virtual private network D. Storage device 4. Which of the following is not a computer register? A. Accumulator B. Instruction registers C. Address Registers D. Cache memory 5. A set of computer programs used on a computer to perform different tasks is called A. computer instructions B. processor C. software D. hardware 6. The flash drive is popularly known as A. Microprocessor B. RAM C. ROM D. Pen Drive 7. Which of the following is not part of C.P.U A. Control Unit B. Main memory C. Backing storage D. Arithmetic and logic unit 9. What refers to addressing the environmental impact of computer use in an environmentally responsible manner? A. Ethical computing B. Green computing C. Fair use D. Cybersquatting 10. In a computer keyboard, the Alt, Ctrl, Shift, Del and Insert keys are known as A. Standard keys B. Function keys C. Navigation keys D. Special purpose keys SECTION B: 40 MARKS Answer all questions in this section 11. a) Define the following terms in relation to computer (6 Marks) i. Data ii. Processing iii. Information b) Outline the technology used in each computer generation. (4 Marks) c) Mention FIVE emerging trends in ICT. (5 Marks) 12. a) State any FOUR types of application software. (4 Marks) b) Highlight the differences between specialized and general-purpose computers. (2 Marks) c) Describe the procedure for turning off a computer. (3 Marks) 13. a) Explain the meaning of the word “operating system.” as used in ICT. (2 Marks) b) Name any FOUR types of operating systems you know. (4 Marks) c) Describe any FIVE operating system functions. (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. This paper has two sections A and B. 2. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 3. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 4. Answer all questions in the answer booklet. 5. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 6. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of THREE (3) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: (40 MARKS) Answer all the questions in this section. 1. List FOUR work place policies on HIV/AIDS followed in an organization. (4 Marks) 2. Management of Maja Ltd intends to organize a workshop on self-management skills. Identify THREE self-management skills that are important to an employee. (3 Marks) 3. Communication at a work place involves passing of ideas and information. Which are the THREE main types of communication used at the workplace? (3 Marks) 4. Highlight FOUR methods of acquiring relevant job-related skills and knowledge at the workplace. (4 Marks) 5. Workers of any organization face human rights issues that need to be addressed. State THREE human rights principles that are designed to protect you as a worker within the workplace. (3 Marks) 6. The manager of Ubora Company Ltd recently organized for a team building workshop. What are the FOUR characteristics of an effective workplace team? (4 Marks) 7. Drug and substance abuse is a threat to improved productivity and employee motivation. List FOUR ways an employee can use to avoid drug and substance abuse at the work place. (4 Marks) 8. You have been offered employment at Uchumi Company LTD. State FOUR employability skills you should possess. (4 Marks) 9. Monitoring is an important activity in an organization. Highlight FOUR ways of monitoring at a workplace. (4 Marks) 10. Identify FOUR benefits of employee training at a workplace. (4 Marks) 11. Ethical issues are common in organizations. State THREE factors that shapes ethical behaviour of members of an organization. (3 Marks) SECTION B: (60 MARKS) Answer any THREE questions in this section. 12. a) The human resource manager at Mali Safi Ltd has the responsibility to oversee career growth and development of employees. Explain FIVE reasons why employees should focus on their career growth and development . (10 Marks) b) Pendo Agencies Ltd experienced financial crisis in the previous financial year. An audit was done and the finding was due to lack of accountability. Explain FIVE benefits an organization can enjoy when employees are accountable for their actions. (10 Marks) 13. a) XYZ Manufacturing Company is in process of formulating and documenting organizational policies and guidelines to facilitate restructuring of its activities. Explain FIVE reasons behind organizations’ setting of policies and guidelines that aids in running its activities. (10 Marks) b) Discuss FIVE strategies that can be employed to eliminate or adapt to stress at a workplace. (10 Marks). 14. a) John has prioritized important work in his daily activities at his workplace. Explain FIVE steps involved in setting work priorities. (10 Marks) b) Describe FIVE principles that help a person to be more assertive. (10 Marks) 15. a) You have been asked by your company’s Manager to represent him in a stakeholders meeting. Explain FIVE relevant public speaking tips one should consider in order to deliver the speech effectively. (10 Marks) b) Mata is a secretary at one of the maize firms in Kenya. She has been expressing anger towards her colleagues. As a consultant, discuss FIVE methods of managing anger at work place. (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. This paper has three sections A, B and C. 2. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 3. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 4. Answer all questions in the answer booklet. 5. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 6. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of SEVEN (7) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A (20 Marks) Answer all the questions in this section. Each question in this section carries one mark 1. Which of the following statements describes the best approach of assisting colleagues struggling with alcohol? A. Report them to the supervisor for appropriate action. B. Assist them to accomplish their tasks in time. C. Provide information on how to avoid alcohol. D. Refer them to a medical health center. 2. What is a career plateau? A. Employee stagnation in career. B. Employees salary decreasing. C. Failure to meet career goals. D. Failure to get promotions. 3. A task refers to __________________________ A. A unit of work. B. A unit of career. C. A unit of position. D. A unit of Profession. 4. The following are negotiation stages except? A. Preparation. B. Middle. C. Closing. D. Bargaining. 5. The conflict resolution mechanism where a neutral fact finder is involved is known as? A. Mediation. B. Litigation. C. Avoidance. D. Arbitration. 6. The following are strategies used in scanning as a reading strategy except? A. Preview. B. Active reading. C. Paraphrase. D. Annotate. 7. What is self-image? A. A photograph of a person clearing showing the appearance. B. Ones strengths, weaknesses and self-worth as expressed by others. C. The act of believing in oneself and having high self-esteem. D. The idea one has of one’s abilities, appearance and personality. 8. Which of the following is a formal communication? A. Tweets on twitter account. B. Message posted on department WhatsApp group. C. Grapevine on Facebook account of a senior employee. D. Status on WhatsApp of an employee. 9. Which of the following behaviour is ethical in an organization? A. Refusing a client’s requisition if it does not meet standards. B. Selling products that are outlawed at fair prices. C. Using an employer’s brand to solicit for personal gains. D. Selling substandard goods to unsuspecting customers. 10. The third stage in the formation of a team is known as? A. Forming. B. Storming. C. Performing. D. Norming. 11. Which of the following is not a career development strategy A. Advancing studies. B. Job sharing. C. Job rotation. D. Job enlargement. 12. Which of the following may be a basis for formation of informal groups? A. Department. B. Managerial level. C. Ethnicity. D. Work Station. 13. Which of the following personal factor may negatively hinder learning? A. Lack of interest. B. Lack of a trainer. C. Lack of learning materials. D. Poor learning environment. 14. Which of the following is an example of verbal communication? A. Facial expression. B. Voice call. C. Sign language. D. WhatsApp chat. 15. Employees fighting at the work place can easily be triggered by______________. A. Anger. B. Indiscipline. C. Emotions. D. Disagreements. 16. Proper grooming may result to the following outcomes in an organization except? A. High self-esteem. B. Customers’ confidence. C. Salary Increment. D. Improved customer service. 17. Which of the following is a not a problem-solving skill? A. Critical thinking skill. B. Empathy skills. C. Sympathy skills. D. Negotiation skill. 18. Which of the following is a mechanism of regulating posts on an institutions Facebook page? A. Posts approval by an administrator. B. Charging people making posts. C. Allowing all people to post. D. Limiting access to the site. 19. Which of the following may be an indication that a colleague is living with HIV? A. Taking Post exposure prophylaxis medication B. Taking Antiretroviral medication C. Taking Antidepressants medication D. Taking Pre exposure prophylaxis medication. 20. Guidelines on behaviour for an organization are known as? A. By laws B. Policies C. Organizational rules D. Code of conduct SECTION B (40 Marks) Answer all the questions in this section. 21. State FOUR fundamental principles of ethics followed by employees at the work place. (4 Marks) 22. List FOUR benefits of upholding ethics at the workplace. (4 Marks) 23. Identify FOUR steps in problem-solving. (4 Marks) 24. A supervisor should ensure a work plan is available before work commences. Outline FOUR benefits of a work plan. (4 Marks) 25. Highlight FOUR benefits of reading. (4 Marks) 26. List FOUR ways of maintaining self-esteem at work. (4 Marks) 27. Outline FOUR guidelines on time management. (4 Marks) 28. Highlight FOUR importance of emotions management at the work place. (4 Marks) 29. Outline FOUR factors affecting the application of learning at the work place. (4 Marks) 30. Highlight FOUR significances of organizational culture. (4 Marks) SECTION C (40 Marks) Answer any TWO questions in this section. 31. a) You have noticed that your work mate is complaining for not being recognized at the work place. Advice the workmate on FIVE ethical ways of seeking recognition. (10 Marks) b) Your colleague has been multitasking by starting many tasks at the same time without completing any which makes the supervisor dissatisfied. Describe FIVE steps followed to prioritize work. (10 Marks) 32. a) Describe SIX Levels of listening. (12 Marks) b) Teams in an organization may experience conflicts. Explain FOUR ways of finding a balance point in the team. (8 Marks) 33. a) Explain FIVE ways an employee can use to enhance job security at the work place. (10 Marks) b) Explain FIVE Strategies of managing stress in an organization. (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. This paper has two sections A and B. 2. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 3. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 4. Answer all questions in the answer booklet. 5. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 6. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of FOUR (4) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (10 Marks) Answer all the questions in this section. Each question in this section carries 1 mark 1. ___________ are causes of stress at a work place. A. Environment and thoughts. B. Time management and punctuality. C. Self-management and self-awareness skills. D. Team work. 2. Misuse and wrong use of substances is known as______________. A. Drug abuse. B. Medicine. C. Stress management. D. Peer pressure. 3. Which of the following is a component of emotional intelligence? A. Self-awareness. B. Spirituality. C. Self-interest. D. Favoritism. 4. HIV/AIDs can NOT be spread through________ A. Sharing food. B. Sexual intercourse. C. Sharing needles. D. Contact with blood of infected person. 5. The following are characteristics of effective personal goals except? A. Specific. B. Strategic. C. Measurable. D. Achievable. 6. Highlight the importance of training employees at a work place. A. Increases job satisfaction and morale. B. Reduces employee productivity. C. Increases accidents at work place. D. Discourages employees and lowers their morale. 7. Ethics at the work place is best described as: A. Moral code that guides employees as to what is right or wrong, good or bad in regard to conduct and decision making at work place. B. Being late at work. C. Reporting your colleagues to your boss. D. Being intelligent. 8. Which among the following does NOT promote ethical behaviours at a work place? A. Rewarding ethical behaviour. B. Training employees. C. Role models. D. Unprofessionalism. 9. Integrity is best described as: A. Being honest and straight forward. B. Dismissal of employees who do not achieve targets. C. Dishonest and not accountable. D. Following rules. 10. Health and safety practices can be promoted at the work place through the following, except? A. Using facilities and equipment properly. B. Wearing protective gears. C. Training employees on health and safety measures. D. Following some and not all safety precautions.   SECTION B (40 Marks) Answer All the questions in this section. 11. Highlight FOUR reasons for having a personal vision statement. (4 Marks) 12. State FOUR elements of emotional intelligence. (4 Marks) 13. Outline FOUR benefits of ethical behaviour at a work place. (4 Marks) 14. List FOUR work place learning methods. (4 Marks) 15. Identify FOUR ways of improving your self-management skills. (4 Marks) 16. Name FOUR emerging issues that employees face at the work place. (4 Marks) 17. Outline FOUR reasons why employees should manage their time effectively. (4 Marks) 18. Highlight FOUR ways of handling stress at the work place. (4 Marks) 19. What are the FOUR benefits of having accountable and responsible employees at the work place? (4 Marks) 20. Your work mate has low self-esteem. List FOUR factors that may contribute to low self-esteem. (4 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has three sections A and B. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are as indicated. 4. Attempt all the questions in section A and any THREE questions in section B. 5. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of 3 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: ( 40 MARKS) Answer ALL questions in this section. Marks for each question are as indicated. 1. Identify any TWO sources of noise pollution within a workplace environment. (2mks) 2. State any FOUR achievements of the occupational safety and health law in Kenya? (4mks) 3. Identify any FOUR key principles for contingency planning. (4mks) 4. List down the FIVE steps followed in OHS risk assessment? (5mks) 5. List FOUR key reasons as to why a workplace should request for evaluations of OSH hazards in the workplace? (4mks) 6. Identify any THREE types of safety and health inspections. (3mks) 7. List any FIVE benefits of implementing of implementing the 5S technique in a working place. (5mks) 8. State FIVE factors to be considered when selecting personal protective equipment (PPE) for a factory worker (5mks) 9. List the FIVE elements of OHS management system in an organization. (5mks) 10. Identify the THREE main types of fire extinguishers known to you? (3mks)   SECTION C: (40 MARKS) Answer any THREE questions in this section. 11. (a) As one of industry policy maker, you have been called upon to review safety policies in company Y, identify FOUR key regulations and subsidiary laws that deal with Occupational Safety and Health issues. (8 mks) (b) Assume that you are an employee of organization X and you have been invited to attend a meeting concerning occupational health and safety matters. Give a presentation to the committee members on how to undertake risk assessment (12 mks) 12. CPR stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation. It combines chest compressions and rescue breaths to give a person the best chance of survival. Assuming that you are leaving your place of work and a person collapse, discus FIVE safety precautions that you would observe and how you would perform Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR). (20 mks) 13. Currently workplaces are faced by various exposures to danger while executing their mandates. In your own opinion discuss TEN the most pressing issues facing occupational health and safety in the most industries. (20 mks) 14. Workplace accidents can be avoided or minimized where possible. In your opinion, give a brief discussion of TEN preventive measures which can be put by safety officers to minimize accidents and injuries. (20mks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.This paper has TWO sections A and B. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4.Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 6 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A CHOICE QUESTIONS (20 MARKS) Answer all the questions in this section Each question carries 1 mark 1. Which one is an employee’s responsibility/obligation? A. Do not change protective devices and used them in the correct way B. Supervise high risk activities C. Maintain an accident register D. Attend to large fire out breaks 2. OSHA was created to A. Data analysis B. To reduce hazards C. Ecological development D. EIA analysis 3. Which one is not a control measure of risk in workplace? A. First aid B. Administration control C. Eliminate risk D. Isolate risk 4. Which one is not a risk or incidence? A. Toxic emissions B. Gas Leaks C. Design control D. Structural collapse 5. Which of the following is an ergonomic hazard? A. Inadequate lighting B. Fumes C. Parasite D. Gas leaks 6. Which one is not an OSH record? A. Medical/health record B. Sickness notification C. Leave notification D. Incident/ accident report 7. Which one is not an engineering control to mitigate risks in a workplace? A. Use safety guard rails to machine B. Use computer screen guard for brightness of computer C. Replace the corrosive chemical with a safe one. D. Enclosing dangerous items of moving machine part 8. Dry powder extinguisher is used to extinguish which Class of fire? A. Class A and class B B. Class A C. Class D D. Class B 9. The only thing that can keep one safe consistently in a workplace is A. Personal protective equipment B. Obeying rules C. Obeying warning signs D. Training on workplace safety 10. Which is not fire extinguisher for petroleum fire A. Water B. Foam C. Carbon iv oxide D. Sand 11. Which one is not a prevention and control measure in OSH? A. Use of safety gear B. Use relevant short-cuts if there is no time C. One uses less energy D. Lack of knowledge 12. Which one is not a safety rule in your workplace? A. Always clean spillages in the workshop B. Always report incidents and accidents. C. Always wear PPE correctly D. Never be concerned with fire procedures 13. What should one never do in an emergency situation? A. Call the emergency line B. Raise alarm C. Use the relevant SOP’s D. Panic and remain stranded 14. The legal responsibilities of an employer with regards to health and safety include? A. Charging employees for replacing damaged of lost PPE B. Proving safe system of work for all employees C. Taking out additional insurance for dangerous work D. Ensuring that only one member of staff works on a dangerous job. 15. Which one is not a PPE in work place? A. Face shield B. Ear muffs C. Hard hat D. Apron 16. Which one of the following is found in the first aid kit? A. Plaster B. Medicine C. Bleach D. Needles 17. Which one is not a harm caused by chemical hazard A. Skin irritation B. Skin disease C. Respiratory sensitizer D. Corrosion 18. Which one in not a physical occupational hazard A. Noisy workplace B. Dusty workplace C. Work at hights D. Vibration in workplace 19. Which type of fire extinguisher is to be used on electrical equipment under fire. A. Foam type B. Halon type C. Gas cartridge water filled type D. Stored pressure water filled type 20. Prohibiting signs are made in which shape A. Square B. Triangular C. Oblong D. Circular SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer ALL the questions in this section. 21. Giving relevant examples for each, define the following terms as used in OSHA. (6 Marks) i. Hazards. ii. Risks. iii. Perils 22.Explain FOUR indicators of hazards. (4 marks) 23.Explain the importance of using personal protective equipment (PPEs). (2 marks) 24. Identify FOUR relevant laws used in occupational safety (4 marks) 25.List FOUR contingency measures used in OSH (4 marks) 26.State THREE importance of working in clean and safe and environment (3 marks) 27.State FOUR importance of OSH training in a workplace (4 marks) 28.Outline TWO reasons for putting on reflective vest in a work place. (2 marks) 29.Outline the importance of periodic medical examination by workers. (2 Marks) 30.Outline FOUR reasons for a fire drill in an organization. (4 Marks) 31.Outline FIVE benefits of good OSH record management. (5 marks) SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer any Two (2) questions in this section 32. (a) As a supervisor in Tsavo National Park, Discuss FIVE Risk evaluation procedures in your workplace (10 Marks) (b) The organization has implemented occupation health and safety procedures. Discuss FIVE priorities addressed by these procedures. (10 marks) 33. (a) Explain the following audits as used in work environment measurements of OSH hazards (4 marks) (i) Safety audit (ii) Work safety (b) Explain FOUR administrative controls that can be used to reduce the risk in the work place. (8 marks) (c) A company has been experiencing a lot of hazards in the work places. Explain FOUR measures they could use to prevent these hazards. (8 marks) 34. (a) A company has got a problem of chemical hazards. Explain FIVE such hazards. (10 marks) (b) Discuss FOUR hazards associated with the feet. (8 marks) (c) Identify the following signs as used in OSHA. (2 marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES: 1. This paper has three sections A and B. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are as indicated. 4. Do not write on the question paper. This tool consists of four printed pages SECTION A [10 MARKS] (Answer ALL the questions in this section, each question carries 1 mark) 1. What is a hazard in a place of work? A. It is a good work practice at place of work. B. It is anything that can cause harm, injury or death at the workplace. C. It is an accident at the work place. D. It is a caution of safety at workplace. 2. Which is the most appropriate way to prevent an injury at workplace? A. Restrict access to the hazards B. Provide gloves and a bobble hat C. Send all employee’s home D. Remove the hazard or redesign the task 3. The following are examples of accidents, EXCEPT? A. Building burnt down by fire. B. Car slid and fall of a clip. C. Worker breaks a leg from falling off a ladder. D. Employee failing to meet daily targets on time. 4. Why do we wear personal protective gear at the place of work? A. To protect ourselves from potential hazards B. To good and attractive C. To please our bosses D. To avoid work penalties like getting fired. 5. If there is a fire outbreak in the place of work, who should you alert? A. Your supervisor only B. Your health and safety representative only C. Everyone at the workplace D. Your manager only 6. Which of the following is a cause of an accident? A. Dislocation of a body part B. Ignorance C. Electrocution D. Death 7. A conducive work environment should be ______? A. Poorly ventilation B. Dusty C. Safe and free of hazards D. Equipped with expensive work tools and equipment 8. One of your colleagues has shown severe symptoms of COVID-19 disease. Which appropriate action should be taken? A. Arrest the victim B. Send the victim home immediately C. Fire the victim. D. Isolate the victim from the rest of staff 9. What should a workplace safety inspection report contain? A. A description of the findings of the inspection or observation. B. A description of the time required to complete the identified actions. C. A description of the progress of activities. D. A description of the workplace 10. The following are safety emergency devices, EXCEPT? A. First aid kits B. Smoke Detectors C. Fire extinguishers D. Safety posters ©TVET Curriculum Development, Assessment and Certification Council Page 4 of 4 SECTION B [40 MARKS] (Answer ALL questions in this section) 11. Outline THREE reasons why accidents should be investigated. (3 marks) 12. Fires can be started in different ways; name FOUR ways in which fires can be started at the workplace. (4 marks) 13. List FOUR components of a first aid kit. (4 marks) 14. Identify FOUR procedures that can be used to address hazards (4 marks) 15. Highlight FOUR types of personal protective equipment (4 marks) 16. Identify FOUR elements of an OSH management system. (4 marks) 17. What are the FOUR concerns of Occupational Safety and Health policies? (4 marks) 18. Outline FOUR safe work practices at the place of work. (5 marks) 19. Identify FOUR types of workplace hazards (4 Marks) 20. Highlight FOUR methods of gathering feedback on safety and health issues. (4 Marks)