June 14, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.This paper has TWO sections A and B. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4.Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 3 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: 40 MARKS Answer ALL the questions in this section. 1. What is Typography? (2 Marks) 2. In graphic design, various elements are essential in creating visually appealing and effective compositions. These elements work together to convey messages, evoke emotions, and communicate ideas. Outline SIX elements used in graphic design. (6 Marks) 3. When creating and editing images, one has to consider image manipulation. List FOUR techniques used in image manipulation. (4 Marks) 4. What is graphic design? (2 Marks) 5. Raster images and vector images are two fundamentally different types of digital images, each with its unique characteristics. Differentiate between the raster images and vector images. (4 Marks) 6. In graphic design, various style concepts are employed to create unique and visually compelling designs. Identify FOUR style concepts used in these designs. (4 Marks) 7. Nanjala has been approached by sokolo college to help them reproduce images and text. Give THREE comparisons between digital and offset printing equipment to help her choose the right one. (6 Marks) 8. Layers are essential for arranging and modifying various aspects in an image and are used extensively in image processing. Mention FIVE effective uses of layers. (5 Marks) 9. Photographers and graphic designers who want to make sure their work fits different standards and is easily shared or printed should be conversant with a number of industry standard file formats and export options. Identify THREE standards in JPEG. (3 Marks) 10. Graphic design is applied in various fields, contributing to the visual communication of ideas, information and concepts. State FOUR application areas of graphic design. (4 Marks) SECTION B: 60 MARKS Answer any THREE questions in this section. 11. a) When using typographic tools to build dynamic layouts, common mistakes can have a negative effect on readability and overall design. Explain FIVE of those common mistakes. (10 Marks) b) Choosing the best graphic design software for a given project or design assignment requires taking into account a number of variables. Discuss any FIVE variables you should consider. (10 Marks) 12. a) Joseph a student in a national polytechnic wants to develop a graphic design on his t shirt. Examine any FIVE principles he should consider during the design. (10 Marks) b) In a class lecture, the students were taught different types of typography techniques used in graphic design. As an expert in this field analyze FIVE types of typography techniques. (10 Marks) 13. a) With Adobe Photoshop, adjustment layers are essential for creating images because they offer a versatile and non-destructive method of manipulating color, contrast, and tone. Explain any FIVE roles of adjustment layers. (10 Marks) b) An understanding of anatomy can significantly impact and plays a critical role in graphic design. Discuss any FIVE roles of anatomy in the graphic design. (10 Marks) 14. a) Kerning is a fundamental aspect of typography. Illustrate FIVE key features and why it’s important for design and readability. (10 Marks) b) GIMP (GNU Image Manipulation Program) is used as an alternative to Adobe’s photo editing software. Review FIVE key features associated with GIMP. (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.This paper has two sections A and B. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4.Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 3 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: 40 MARKS Attempt ALL questions in this section 1. a) Define the term Management Information Systems (MIS). (2 Marks) b) Highlight THREE objectives of implementing an MIS in an organization. (3 Marks) 2. State TWO objectives of IS planning in business organization (2 Marks) 3. Discuss THREE significance of security facilities in Information Systems. (6 Marks) 4. Highlight THREE primary focus of the strategic level in an organization (3 Marks) 5. State FIVE key components of information systems (5 Marks) 6. Explain the concept of a cybernetic system and how it uses feedback mechanisms. (2 Marks) 7. Outline FOUR commonly used performance indicators at the tactical level (4 Marks) 8. Information Resource Management encompasses the systematic planning, control and optimization of an organization’s information resources to support its goals and objectives. Mention FIVE key concepts in Information Resource Management (IRM) (5 Marks) 9. Discuss TWO common planning techniques used in Information Systems (IS). (4 Marks) 10. Describe TWO information system acquisition methods (4 Marks) SECTION B: 60 MARKS Attempt any THREE questions in this section 11. You have been appointed as the Chief Information Officer (CIO) of a medium-sized company that is experiencing challenges with its Information Systems (IS) operations. Your first task is to revamp the IS planning and project management processes. a) Discuss the SEVEN key steps to be followed to ensure a successful IS planning process. (14 Marks) b) Categorize SIX essential elements of project planning that you would employ for system project. (6 Marks) 12. a) In the context of Information Resource Management (IRM) concepts, discuss SIX ways in which organizations can balance the need for data accessibility and data security. (12 Marks) b) Justify the significance of FOUR aspects of managing Information Resources in the public sector, such as government agencies or educational institutions. (8 Marks) 13. a) Elaborate FIVE important of usability and user-friendliness qualities of an IS. (10 Marks) b) Information systems are important components of organization. Describe FIVE types of information systems. (10 Marks) 14. Outsourcing can be defined as the process of turning partially or fully an organization’s IT services to external entities. a) Discuss FIVE merits of outsourcing an IS to an organization (10 Marks) b) Explain FIVE types of systems that are found in business organization (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.This paper has TWO sections A and B. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4.Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 5 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: 40 MARKS Answer ALL questions in this section. 1. State THREE non-functional requirements that can be considered when coming up with a website. (3 Marks) 2. a) Web authoring tools are used in creating and managing web content. State TWO such tools. (2 Marks) b) Outline TWO advantages of the tools listed in (a) above. (2 Marks) 3. Define the term site map as used in website maintenance. (2 Marks) 4. When linking a database to a website, the HTTP methods POST and GET are often used to send and retrieve data from the server. These methods have distinct characteristics and are used in different contexts. State TWO differences between the two methods. (4 Marks) 5. Define the following terms as used in HTML; (4 Marks) a) row span; b) cell span; c) cell padding; d) cell spacing. 6. A Software Requirements Specification (SRS) document is a comprehensive description of the intended purpose and behavior of a software system. It serves as a reference for software developers, designers, and testers, providing detailed information about the software’s functionalities, constraints, and performance requirements. State THREE main parts of a software requirements specifications (SRS) document. (3 Marks) 7. CSS (Cascading Style Sheets) selectors are used to target and style HTML elements based on their attributes, structure, and relationship with other elements. There are several types of CSS selectors. Outline FOUR such selectors. (4 Marks) 8. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is an extension of HTTP that provides secure communication over a computer network, typically the internet. Explain TWO features of HTTPS that makes a website secure. (4 Marks) 9. Explain the term empty tag as used in HTML. (2 Marks) 10. Using an appropriate example, differentiate between a Check box and Option button as used in website development. (3 Marks) 11. Performing testing during website maintenance is crucial for ensuring that the website continues to function. Outline FOUR importance of performing such testing. (4 Marks) 12. Validating user requirements is crucial to ensure that the proposed system or software will meet the needs and expectations of its intended users. Explain THREE techniques are used to validate user requirements. (3 Marks) SECTION B: 60 MARKS Answer any THREE questions in this section. 13. a) Ken was contracted to perform website maintenance of XYZ Company that was having problems. In the process he came up with a website maintenance report. Explain SIX components of a website report. (12 Marks) b) Protocols and APIs play a crucial role in facilitating data exchange and synchronization between different systems, applications, or databases. Explain FOUR protocols or APIs that can be used for data exchange and synchronization. (8 Marks) 14. a) In JavaScript, comments are annotations that used in the web page. Explain TWO advantages of having JavaScript comments in a site. (4 Marks) b) In HTML Page, style sheets can be inserted into a web page using several methods, allowing developers to apply various styles and layouts to the content. Explain THREE methods that can be used to insert this style sheet. (6 Marks) c) Write a JavaScript program embedded in HTML that uses an event handler on click to display the word click me, when the word is clicked it displays the string “welcome to JS” on alert box. Use a JavaScript function. (10 Marks) 15. a) Isaac wrote a code for allowing users to register to a site as displayed in the picture below. Write what will appear if the code is executed in a browser. (10 Marks) b) Securing a website is critical to protect it from various cyber threats and vulnerabilities. Explain FIVE website security measures that can be taken to ensure that website is secure. (10 Marks) 16. a) James a trainer was training on coming up with tables in website and displayed the table below. Write the possible code that could have led to the output. (8 Marks) b) When creating variables in PHP, it’s important to follow certain rules to ensure proper syntax and adherence to best practices. Outline FOUR such rules. (4 Marks) c) When selecting a hosting service provider, it’s essential to consider several key factors to ensure that the provider aligns with specific requirements and goals. Explain FOUR factors one will consider when selecting a provider. (8 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.This paper has TWO sections A and B. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4.Do not write on the question paper SECTION A: 40 MARKS Answer ALL questions in this section. 1. Define the following terms as used in cyber security: (8 Marks) i. asset; ii. threat; iii. logic bomb; iv. Vulnerability. 2. Define the term ethical penetration as used in testing. (2 Marks) 3. State THREE ways in which one can prevent brute force attack. (3 Marks) 4. Differentiate between the following : (4 Marks) i. Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing. ii. Update and Overhaul of security systems. 5. Mention any THREE ways attackers may use to identify an individual password. (3 Marks) 6. Outline FOUR symptoms of malware infection in a computer system. (4 Marks) 7. Explain the term SQL injection. (2 Marks) 8. Explain the term Secure Socket Layer (SSL). (2 Marks) 9. Discuss THREE common categories of ICT security threats. (6 Marks) 10. Explain THREE categories of computer hackers. (6 Marks) SECTION B: 60 MARKS Answer THREE questions in this section. 11.a) Explain the SIX steps of setting up a firewall. (12 Marks) b) Information security is important to every organisation connected to network. Explain FOUR functions of information security. (8 Marks) 12. The government of Kenya thwarted an attempted attack on the government services. You are appointed to give advisory on measures to protect the services from being attacked again. Explain TEN measures you would recommend. (20 Marks) 13. a) Explain THREE goals of ICT security. (6 Marks) b) Discuss SEVEN elements of an Information security policy. (14 Marks) 14. a) Explain FIVE steps followed when coming up with system testing plan. (10 Marks) b) Discuss FIVE types of logical security control measures which can be implemented in computer organisation. (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.This paper has THREE sections: A, B and C. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4.Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 7 printed pages Candidate should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: 20 MARKS Answer ALL questions in this section. 1. Which of the following represents a significant milestone in the evolution of operating systems? A. Release of Microsoft Office B. Introduction of the first personal computer C. Development of the World Wide Web D. Invention of the transistor 2. The client-server model in operating systems is commonly associated with A. Monolithic structures B. Real-time operating systems C. Distributed computing D. Mainframe computers 3. The operating system structure that is known for having all operating system services and functionalities in a single program is known as A. Monolithic B. Layered C. Virtual D. Client-server model 4. Enumerate one type of operating system that is designed for resource-constrained devices like smartphones and IoT devices. A. Mainframe OS B. Mobile OS C. Desktop OS D. Server OS 5. The component of the operating system that manages the essential functions and interacts directly with the hardware A. Shell B. System call C. Kernel D. Object file 6. _________is the function of an operating system that is responsible for process management, memory management and file system management. A. Resource allocation B. User interface C. Device management D. Security and access control 7. During the installation of an operating system, which step involves creating user accounts and setting passwords? A. Disk partitioning B. Installation of device drivers C. Network configuration D. User configuration 8. The memory management technique that involves dividing physical memory into fixed-sized blocks, allowing multiple processes to reside in memory simultaneously is known as_______ A. Paging B. Segmentation C. Swapping D. Fragmentation 9. In computer systems, what is the role of the clock system or clock cycle A. It manages input devices. B. It controls the power supply to the CPU. C. It synchronizes the execution of instructions and operations. D. It regulates the network connections. 10.File protection and security mechanisms in an operating system are designed to: A. Maximize data duplication. B. Ensure all files are accessible to all users. C. Prevent unauthorized access and maintain data integrity. D. Improve network connectivity. 11.The file access method that allows reading and writing files from any position in the file, making it suitable for random access is referred to A. Sequential access B. Direct access C. Index access D. Consecutive access 12.What is the purpose of device drivers in computer systems? A. They manage user interfaces. B. They control the CPU clock speed. C. They enable communication between the operating system and hardware devices. D. They provide network security. 13.Define file system management in the context of computer systems. A. Managing user accounts and authentication. B. Managing file storage and retrieval. C. Managing network connections. D. Managing hardware resources. 14.Highlight one primary objective of managing input/output devices in computer systems. A. Maximizing CPU performance. B. Ensuring data encryption. C. Efficiently managing data transfer between devices and memory. D. Enhancing user interface design. 15.Mention one example of an emerging trend in operating systems A. Decreased reliance on virtualization technologies B. Enhanced data security measures C. Reduced demand for cloud computing D. Diminished importance of user-friendly interfaces 16.How can organizations cope with the challenges posed by emerging trends in file system management? A. Ignore the trends and continue with traditional file management methods. B. Invest in advanced data security and privacy technologies. C. Reduce data storage capacities to minimize risks. D. Decrease data backups to reduce costs. 17.In a virtual operating system structure, what is the primary advantage of running multiple operating systems on a single physical machine? A. Improved security B. Enhanced performance C. Efficient resource sharing D. Reduced software complexity 18.State one effective strategy for organizations to cope with the challenges posed by emerging trends in operating systems. A. Resist adopting new technologies to maintain stability. B. Focus on decreasing data backups to reduce costs. C. Embrace continuous learning and adaptability in IT practices. D. Discontinue updates and patches to prevent system disruptions. 19.State the function of a Process Control Block (PCB). A. To store the executable code of a process. B. To control the input/output operations of a process. C. To contain information about a process’s state and resources. D. To manage the allocation of CPU time. 20.Concurrency control in operating systems is primarily concerned with A. Increasing the processing speed of the CPU. B. Managing multiple processes to ensure efficient resource utilization. C. Preventing software bugs in the code. D. Enhancing user interface design. SECTION B: 40 MARKS Answer ALL questions in this section. 21.Highlight the procedures involved in the installation of operating systems. (5 Marks) 22.With the aid of a diagram, describe a THREE states process model as used in operating system. (5 Marks) 23.Describe TWO memory management and allocation mechanisms utilized by operating systems. (4 Marks) 24.Process scheduling mechanisms in operating systems have a variety of properties that affect how they work in a computer system. Describe FOUR characteristics of scheduling algorithms used in process scheduling. (4 Marks) 25.Differentiate between pre-emptive and non-pre-emptive scheduling. (4 Marks) 26.Deadlocks, in the context of operating systems, are complex situations where processes are unable to proceed because each is holding a resource and waiting for another resource that is held by another process. Outline FOUR of such conditions. (4 Marks) 27.Fixed partitioning is a memory management approach in which main memory is divided into fixed-size sections to accommodate processes. List at least FOUR drawbacks to this strategy. (4 Marks) 28.To ease the interaction between software applications and hardware devices, input and output (I/O) software systems often include numerous levels. Mention any FOUR that you are

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.This paper has THREE sections A, B and C. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4.Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 9 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: 20 MARKS Attempt ALL questions in this section. 1. Which type of database model organizes data into tables with rows and columns? A. Hierarchical B. Relational C. NoSQL D. Graph 2. ________________ is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a record. A. Primary Key B. Foreign Key C. Supper Key D. Candidate Key 3. What is a table in a database? A. A Visual representation of the database structure B. A Collection of related records organized in rows and columns C. A backup copy of the entire database D. A query is used to retrieve data. 4. Select the relationship that exists between two tables in a relational database when a record in the 1st table can be related to many records in the 2nd table, but each record in the 2nd table is related to only one record in the 1st table. A. One-to-one B. one-to-many C. many-to-one D. many-to-many 5. When creating a new table, what is the purpose of the PRIMARY KEY constraint? A. It specifies the table’s name B. It enforces unique values in a specific column and identifies a record C. It sets a default value for all records D. It defines a foreign key relationship 6. What type of data can be stored in the database? A. Image oriented data B. Text, Files containing data C. Data in the form of audio or video D. All the above 7. What is the primary goal of database testing? A. To test the user interface of a database application B. To ensure data consistency, accuracy, and reliability in a database C. To evaluate the network speed of a database server D. To validate the database design only 8. Which of the following is not a common method for testing the performance of a database? A. Load testing B. Stress Testing C. Usability testing D. Scalability testing 9. Mary is to retrieve data from the student’s database. What SQL statement can she use to get her results? A. SELECT B. PRINT C. DISPLAY D. OUTPUT 10. In a relationship database management system, what is the purpose of the “DESC” command? A. To describe how to delete a database object B. To describe the structure of a table or database object C. To insert data into a table D. To modify the schema of a table 11. Choose the term that describes the smallest unit of data in a relational database. A. Table B. Record C. Field D. Database Schema 12. When setting up a database you are required to define the data types for column. What is the primary purpose for doing so? A. To limit the amount of data that can be stored in a column B. To specify how data is stored and interpreted C. To define the primary key of a table D. To create a relationship between tables 13. In a NoSQL database model, which type is designed for high-speed data retrieval and querying? A. document-oriented B. Key-value C. Column-family D. Graphical 14. Which component of a DBMS is responsible for interpreting and executing SQL queries? A. Query optimizer B. Database Engine C. Data dictionary D. Query Designer 15. What does the term “SQL’ stand for in the context of database management? A. Structured Query Language B. Sequential Query Logic C. Secure Query Layer D. System Query Link 16. Select the primary purpose of a “VIEW” in a database. A. To store data in a structured format B. To generate reports of business analysis C. To provide a virtual table based on the results of an SQL query D. To create backup copies of the database 17. ICT students were given the four processes below during their database system lessons. Choose which one is not the utility of DBMS. i) Backup ii) loading iii) Process organization iv) File organization A. i, ii, and iv only B. i, ii, and iii only C. i, iii, and iv only D. All (i, ii, iii, and iv) 18. The relationship between ________________ is called parent-child relationship. A. Forms B. Record type C. Filtered type D. Data type. 19. Queries are special views of data in a _________________ A. Table B. Record C. Forms D. Report 20. Shown below are the data processing steps. Select the odd one out. A. Validation B. Collection C. Verification D. Computation SECTION B: 40 MARKS Attempt ALL questions in this section 21. a) What is a database? (2 Marks) b) Database Management Systems (DBMS) carry out several crucial tasks. Enumerate its FOUR purposes. (4 Marks) 22. Effective data management and retrieval are supported by several indexing-related database architectural benefits. Identify the FOUR benefits of indexing about database design. (4 Marks) 23. Define the following terms as used in the database management system. a) foreign key (2 Marks) b) Table (2 Marks) c) Reports (2 Marks) 24. a) One method that is frequently applied in the realm of database architecture is entity-relationship (ER) modeling technique. Describe this technique (2 Marks) b) Database relationships are an essential aspect of Entity-Relationship Diagrams (ERDs). Explain how they are represented in an ERD. (2 Marks) 25. a) Define the term normalization in the context of a database. (2 Marks) b) Normalization provides numerous major benefits in database architecture that help overall data management and system performance. List THREE of its advantages. (3 Marks) 26. a) Database testing is an important aspect of software testing that ensures the data in a database is correct, accessible and secure. What is database testing? (2

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1.This paper has THREE sections A, B and C. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2.You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3.Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4.Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of 7 printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: 20 MARKS Answer ALL questions in this section. Each question carries one Mark 1. The abbreviation UPS stands for _________________________________ A. Universal power supply B. Uninterrupted power supply C. Unique power supply D. United parcel service 2. What is the main purpose of using an anti-static wrist strap when working with computer equipment? A. To make the technician look professional. B. To prevent the computer from overheating. C. To prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage. D. To increase the computer’s processing speed 3. You have been tasked with trouble shooting the Principals computer. Which of the following would be the logical first step in troubleshooting the PC? A. Check the computer CMOS B. Define the circumstances of the problem C. Call the vendor D. Define what applications are being used 4. Bytes are essential in digital computing because it provides a standard unit for representing and manipulating data. It can hold one _______________ of data. A. Bit B. Binary gigit C. Character D. Kilobyte 5. Select below the correct difference between RAM and ROM. A. RAM is volatile memory, while ROM is non-volatile memory. B. RAM is permanent memory, while ROM is temporary memory. C. RAM is used to store data, while ROM is used to store instructions. D. RAM is used to store programs, while ROM is used to store data. 6. How can you determine if a repaired or replaced component is working correctly? A. Perform a functionality test B. Inspect for any physical damage C. Consult an expert technician D. Compare it with the original component 7. The ______________ holds all the physical parts of the computer. A. System unit B. CPU C. Mainframe D. Platform 8. By following the post-repair or post-replacement steps, you can help ensure the continued smooth and reliable operation of the computer and minimize the risk of future issues. ___________should be done after repairing or replacing a faulty component and confirming its functionality. A. Reassemble the equipment B. Documenting the repair process C. Clean the entire system D. Skip the testing phase 9. DSL typically provides which type of internet connection? A. Dial-up B. Broadband C. Satellite D. Cellular 10. Transition is often driven by advancements in technology and the ability of PC-based servers to provide the necessary performance and reliability. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing _____________in many business. A. Supercomputers B. Clients C. Laptops D. Mainframes 11. Monitors are output devices that come in various types. Select below a monitor that looks like a television and is normally used with a non-portable computer systems. A. CRT B. LCD C. LED D. Flat Panel Monitors 12. Stress testing is an important practice for both end-users and hardware developers. Choose why you would do it on a computer and its components. A. To analyze the power consumption. B. To determine the physical dimensions. C. To check the network connectivity. D. To evaluate its stability under heavy workloads. 13. Which of the following power problem may not arise in the usage of computers? A. Overvoltages (spikes and surges) B. Undervoltages (brownouts) C. Power failure (blackouts) D. Fan power (interference) 14. An output unit plays a crucial role in a wide range of output devices. Pick from below a function of the Output Unit of a computer. A. It produces results that can be easily understood by the user. B. It accepts the results produced by the computer. A. It supplies the data and instructions to the outside world. B. It supplies the data and instructions to the computer for further processing. 15. The specific location where the output is stored depends on the nature of the operation and the design of the computer’s architecture. Where the ALU does Stores its output in the computer? A. Secondary storage B. Registers C. Flags D. Output Unit 16. The following are computer buses, which one is not? A. Network bus B. Data bus C. Address bus D. Control bus 17. Alice is performing a software upgrade, what would she do with any existing licenses or product keys? A. Deactivate them before the upgrade. B. Upgrade them to a higher version. C. Transfer them to another system. D. Discard them after the upgrade. 18. Components that provide internal storage to the CPU are referred to as? A. Registers. B. Program Counters. C. Controllers. D. Internal chips. 19. The CPU is allowed to respond to external events and efficiently manage multiple tasks concurrently. Choose a special request sent to the CPU to acquire some of its time. A. Disturbance B. Attenuation C. Interrupt D. Noise 20. Which unit is responsible for converting the data received from the user into computer understandable format? A. Memory Unit B. Arithmetic & Logic Unit C. Input Unit D. Output Unit SECTION B: 40 MARKS Answer ALL questions in this section. 21. Outline FOUR importance of carrying out computer maintenance in an organization. (4 Marks) 22. State the function of each of the following parts of a regulated power supply system. (4 Marks) i. Transformer. ii. Rectifier. iii. Smoothing. iv. Regulator. 23. Testing a computer’s cooling system is crucial for maintaining optimal performance. Discuss the importance of testing a computer’s cooling system. (3 Marks) 24. Documentation is a valuable asset for organizations; it is used to describe the product to its users. Highlight FOUR importance of system documentation (4 Marks) 25. Outline FOUR characteristics of secondary memory of a computer. (4 Marks) 26. Highlight FIVE advantages of cathode ray tube used in the productions of the image (5 Marks) 27. Fault finding in

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. This paper has THREE sections A, B and C. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 4. Do not write on the question paper SECTION A: 20 MARKS Attempt ALL questions in this section. 1. What type of network covers a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or campus? A. WAN (Wide Area Network) B. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) C. LAN (Local Area Network) D. PAN (Personal Area Network) 2. Which of the following is an example of a physical network topology? A. Star B. Bus C. Mesh D. Token Ring 3. Robert is creating a central network. Select the device he will need to connect multiple devices in a local area network (LAN) A. Router B. Modem C. Hub D. Firewall 4. An institution has a modem included in their network setup. Why do you think its important to have it there? A. Data encryption B. Network security C. Converting digital data to analog signals and vice versa D. Routing data between devices 5. Choose the primary function of the “ping” command in network configuration? A. To send a test packet to a network device to check if it’s reachable B. To configure DNS settings C. To list network interfaces D. To create a virtual private network 6. In a network configuration, which method allows devices to obtain IP addresses automatically from a DHCP server? A. Static IP addressing B. Dynamic IP addressing C. Manual IP addressing D. APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) 7. When configuring network protocols, select the role of a port number? A. To identify a network device B. To determine the network’s IP address C. To specify the type of service or application D. To encrypt data traffic 8. During network protocol configuration at Musembe Enterprises, a firewall is installed. Choose the primary purpose of the firewall? A. To route data between devices B. To establish secure VPN connections C. To manage IP addressing D. To block unauthorized network traffic 9. In the context of network device configuration, what does the term “bandwidth” refer to? A. The physical width of a network cable B. The maximum data transfer rate of a network connection C. The number of devices connected to a network D. The network’s geographical coverage 10. Select the purpose of a DNS server as used in network configuration. A. To convert IP addresses to domain names B. To manage network security policies C. To create a secure VPN Connection D. To secure email communications 11. You are assigned to carry out testing in a network infrastructure, Pick the main goal for this. A. To identify potential network security threats B. To optimize network aesthetics C. To reduce network scalability D. To ensure network reliability, performance, and security 12. Ratti just used the “traceroute” command. Identify what she is trying to identify on the network A. To encrypt data transmissions B. To test network connectivity and display the path taken by packets C. To identify network vulnerabilities D. To manage DNS settings 13. The “ping” command is commonly used when setting up a network. Pick the reason why you would use it. A. To measure the time it takes to download a file B. To encrypt network traffic C. To create a virtual network D. To send a message to a remote device and check for a response 14. In the context of network types, what does “CAN” typically stand for? A. Campus Area Network B. Controller Area Network C. Corporate Access Network D. Centralized Area Network 15. Which network connection media is most suitable for long-distance data transmission and high speed internet connections? A. Twisted pair cable B. Coaxial cable C. Fiber optic cable D. USB cable 16. As a student you are given the below cables to use during your practical exams. Choose which one is not a network connection media A. Ethernet cable B. Fiber optic cable C. Wi-Fi D. USB cable 17. What technology is often used to connect a laptop to an external hard drive or a keyboard and mouse to a computer? A. Ethernet B. USB C. Wi-Fi D. ISDN 18. St Veronica Hospital had a link failure in their network. Pick the network architecture that would help them reroute traffic quickly. A. Bus B. Client-Server C. Mesh D. Ring 19. ___________________ is a device commonly used to extend the range of a wireless network, allowing devices to connect in areas with a weak signal. A. Repeater B. Switch C. Hub D. Bridge 20. When assigning IP addresses __________ is used to ensure they are within the correct IP range? A. DNS Server B. Network Scanner C. Cable Tester D. DHCP Server SECTION B: 40 MARKS Attempt ALL questions in this section 21. a) Name FOUR things one will see in a network test report (4 Marks) b) Khwatenge wants to set up a network in his organization. State THREE essential components he will require. (3 Marks) 22. a) i. Define a network operating system (2 Marks) ii. Give THREE ways a network Operating system is used in a business environment. (3 Marks) b) Give FOUR reasons why it is important to connect network devices correctly. (4 Marks) 23. Peter a network designer was tasked to set a computer network katakana Technical Institute. He was given a coaxial cable, 5 computers, 1 printer, 2 terminators and drop cables. a) With the aid of a diagram, design the most appropriate network topology that Peter could have set up. (4 Marks) b) Outline THREE disadvantages of the above topology (3 Marks) 24. Give FOUR roles of IP as used in TCP/IP (4 Marks) 25. a) Define troubleshooting as used in networks as used in networks. (2 Marks) b) A company has installed a mesh topology. Outline FOUR limitations of this topology. (4 Marks) 26. a) An organization that is