June 18, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has TWO sections A and B. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets (). 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of Three (3) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (40MARKS) Answer all the questions. 1. A manufacturing company has engaged a consultant to guide on a business strategy that can enable the firm to have competitive advantage against other firms. Suggest three such strategies. (3 Marks) 2. Tactical plans are prepared in accordance with strategic goals and departmental objectives of an organization. Give four factors that determine when to use tactical planning in an organization? (4 Marks) 3. ABC limited has been experiencing a decline in the number of return customers. Highlight five ways through which the organization can enhance customer retention. (5 Marks) 4. The management is in the process of appraising employees’ performance for the past quarter. Outline four methods that may be adopted to evaluate employee’s performance (4 Marks) 5. Apart from the customer’s name and contact details, state three other pieces of information that must be recorded on customer complaints register. (3 Marks) 6. You have been tasked to prepare an organization structure. Identify five departments that you shall include. (5 Marks) 7. You have been tasked to evaluate your business operations. Outline four internal factors for business operations that can either form their strengths or weaknesses? (4 Mark) 8. A business is expected to formulate a vision before it commences its operations. Highlight three reasons of having a vision. (3 Marks) 9. You are in the process of formulating strategies for your business. Suggest four organization capabilities upon which strategies can be formulated? (4 Marks) 10. An organization is in the process of identifying its operational gaps. List five ways that may be used? (5 Marks) SECTION B (60 MARKS) Answer any THREE questions in this section 11. (a) A recent human resource audit in ABC Limited has revealed the existence of ghost workers in their payroll. Explain five digital strategies that the organization should invest in to curb ghost workers. (10 Marks) (b) You have been tasked to develop an organization strategy; explain five elements that you shall include in the plan. (10 Marks) 12. (a) You are part of a team that is evaluating the performance of a retail outlet. Explain five key performance indicators you would use to carry out the exercise. (10 Marks) (b) Most businesses in Kenya have been closed in the past five years. Explain five reasons that may have led to the closure. (10 Marks) 13. (a) Your manager has delegated some duties to you. Explain five principles of delegation that should be adhered to for delegation to be effective. (10 Marks) (b) The performance in XYZ Limited has been very poor as a result of employee’s demotivation. Explain five ways through which an organization may motivate its employees. (10 Marks) 14. (a) An organization has detected a number of non-conformities in their operations. Describe five guidelines in creating a corrective action. (10 Marks) (b) You have been tasked to evaluate City A as an option for establishing a business. Explain five PESTEL factors that you may evaluate. (10 Marks)

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INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has THREE sections A, B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets (). 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of SEVEN (7) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: 20 MARKS Answer ALL the questions in this section. Each question carries one (1) mark. 1. Identify from the answers below, the purpose of developing an ICT policy in an organization. A. To limit access to ICT resources. B. To discourage the use of ICT in the workplace. C. To provide guidelines for ICT usage and management. D. To promote unauthorized access to ICT systems. 2. The following are characteristics of appropriate technology, except. A. Sustainability. B. User friendly. C. Durability. D. Low energy and resource requirement. 3. _____________________is a purpose of reviewing an ICT draft policy. A. Insecurity. B. Suggestions and feedback. C. Data security. D. Regulatory compliance. 4. The following are elements of an email. ________________is not. A. Subject line. B. Protocol. C. Attachment. D. Recipient. 5. What should be considered when evaluating potential ICT service providers? A. Reputation and track record of the service provider. B. Price and price alone. C. Availability of customer support. D. Any service provider that claims to be the cheapest option. 6. Select one of the ICT issues that is directly linked to climatic change. A. Freedom of Expression. B. Surveillance. C. E-waste. D. Privacy. 7. _______________________ is not a step in the procurement process for ICT services. A. Identifying requirements and specifications. B. Implementing and maintaining the procured services. C. Selecting and evaluating potential service providers. D. Negotiating and signing contracts. 8. The following are examples of virtual meeting platforms except? A. Zoom. B. Skype. C. Twitter. D. Google Meet. 9. Select one of the reasons why a business may upgrade its system. A. To upgrade employee, break rooms. B. To outsource customer service operations. C. To reduce employee training costs. D. To improve data security and protect against cyber threats. 10. Which one of the following is a factor to consider when installing ICT equipment? A. Human Resources department only. B. Top-level management only. C. Project Scope and Objectives. D. Relevant stakeholders and employees within the organization. 11. One of the following is a challenge faced when procuring ICT services, except? A. Increased security vulnerabilities. B. Delayed project timelines. C. Poor quality service. D. Risk assessment. 12. Identify one benefit of conducting regular maintenance of ICT systems. A. To avoid any disruptions to daily operations B. To completely replace the ICT systems every few months C. To increase the workload of the IT department D. To save costs by eliminating maintenance activities 13. What does ERP stand for? A. Electronic Records Processing B. Enterprise Resource Planning C. Efficient Resource Provisioning D. Essential Reporting Platform 14. _____________________, means to integrate ICT in operation. A. To separate ICT from operational activities. B. To utilize ICT to enhance and streamline operational processes. C. To eliminate the need for ICT in day-to-day operations. D. To outsource all ICT operations to external vendors. 15. Select one benefit of conducting ICT user training. A. To limit employee access to ICT resources B. To discourage employees from using ICT tools C. To enhance employees’ skills and knowledge in using ICT tools D. To replace the need for ICT tools with manual processes 16. ___________________is a primary goal of promoting ICT innovation. A. To increase the organization’s revenue. B. To adopt the latest technology trends. C. To drive creativity and develop new solutions and services using ICT. D. To reduce the organization’s IT budget. 17. The following are ICT related reports______________is not. A. Disaster Recovery plan. B. Network Security report. C. IT audit report. D. Research report. 18. Identify one factor to be considered when evaluating potential ICT service providers. A. To limit the services provided by the provider. B. To ensure exclusivity with the chosen provider. C. To outline the agreed-upon terms and conditions. D. To discourage innovation and flexibility. 19. Local Area Networks (LANs) come in various types. Select one which is not. A. Topology. B. Fibre Optic. C. Wireless Mesh LAN. D. Data transfer. 20. The following are benefits of supervising ICT installation and maintenance services, except? A. Increased efficiency. B. Improved security. C. Reduced costs. D. Enhanced customer satisfaction. SECTION B: 40 MARKS Answer ALL the questions in this section. 21. You are an intern at XYZ Limited charged with the responsibility of preparing a training plan. Highlight three steps you will follow when preparing a training plan. (3 Marks) 22. An organization has acquired an electronic customer relationship management system. Outline five benefits of acquiring the system. (5 Marks) 23. Outsourcing is a is common practice for acquiring ICT services; Outline four benefits of outsourcing ICT functions. (4 Marks) 24. State three reasons for carrying out ICT training needs assessments. (3 Marks) 25. Virtual platforms have become a necessity to organizations as an emerging issue. Outline four factors to consider when implementing virtual platforms. (4 Marks) 26. You have been tasked to evaluate potential ICT providers. Outline five criteria that you shall use to evaluate them. (5 Marks) 27. State three practices that a trainer should observe in conducting ICT user training. (3 Marks) 28. A new retail business has embraced online services. Highlight four advantages of this move for business operations. (4 Marks) 29. Business reports are powerful tools if used correctly. Outline five disadvantages of reports. (5 Marks) 30. Highlight four reasons of backing-up data. (4 Marks)   SECTION C: 40 MARKS Answer any TWO questions from this section The maximum marks for each question is 20. 31. ICT reports play a vital role in assessing, monitoring, and communicating the performance and impact of ICT systems within an organization. They provide valuable information for decision-making and continuous improvement

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has THREE sections A, B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets (). 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of Seven (7) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (20 MARKS) Answer ALL the questions in this section. Each question carries one (1) mark. 1. As a business manager, what is the first step, in risk assessment? A. Control the risk B. Assess the risk C. Document the risk D. Review the risk 2. Which of the following is a method of transferring risks? A. Strict controls B. Avoidance C. Insurance D. Contracting 3. Which of the following is a technological risk? A. Price fluctuations B. Currency fluctuations C. Moral degradation D. Human error 4. Which of the following is a component of a job specification? A. Reporting responsibility B. Level of experiences C. Roles to be assigned D. Salary scale 5. Which of the following is a risk mitigation plan? A. Training B. Debriefing C. Appraisal D. Resourcing 6. The main aim of business risk control is to___________________________ A. consolidate goal setting B. evaluate employee performance and award them. C. identify, assess and prepare for any danger. D. solve problems before they become worse. 7. The following are risk mitigation strategies except? A. Avoidance B. Reduction C. Acceptance D. Merging 8. A manager may use risk assessment report in order to_________________ A. Boost centralization B. Evaluate hazards C. Boost behaviors D. Motivate employees 9. The following are Internal Controls except? A. Segregation of duties B. Human resource controls C. Physical controls D. Social controls 10. _____________ is a reputation risk. A. Defamation B. Recognition C. Competition D. Mergers 11. Identify an economic risk from the choices listed below. A. Changes in means of payment B. Changes in Mode of payment C. Changes in Interest rates D. Changes in Technology 12. A peril is a __________________________. A. Moral hazard B. Catastrophic immediate danger C. A condition that increases chances of loss D. Probability of loss to occur 13. Which of the following is not a pillar of risk management? A. Effective reporting B. Effective Communication C. Proactive design D. Strategic orientation 14. The process of planning for disaster and having away to lessen negative impact is known as? A. Risk transfer B. Risk limitation C. Mitigation plan D. Mitigation exploitation 15. A hazard refers to__________________ A. Conditions that increase the possibility of a loss happening. B. Risks whose occurrence is not guaranteed and leads to losses if they occur. C. The process of planning for disaster. D. A risk mitigation strategy to avoid losses. 16. Head hunting is common for which cadre of employees? A. Casual Staff B. Operational staff C. Middle Management D. Top Management 17. Which one of the following is a process in the recruitment process? A. Job ranking B. Job evaluation C. Longlisting D. Appraisal 18. What is a pure risk? A. The risk occurrence can only result to a profit B. The risk occurrence can only result to a loss C. The risk occurrence can result to a profit or loss D. The risk occurrence can only result to no loss or gain 19. The following are objectives of plant and equipment maintenance except? A. To save on cost of maintenance B. To maintain the quality of products C. To maintain a good relationship D. To minimize accidents 20. When is the right time to identify risks associated with a plant? A. Before Installation B. Before operating C. Before acquisition D. Before disposal   SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer ALL the questions in this section. 21. Define the following terms as used in risk management. (4 Marks) (a) Insurable risks (b) Risk management policy 22. You have been tasked to make a presentation on risk mitigation strategies. Outline three strategies you would include in your power point presentation. (3 Marks) 23. John is required to develop a job description for a business manager. Mention three details that he should include. (3 Marks) 24. Mwamko Limited has been disposing industrial waste on the nearby river. Identify three possible risks associated with this practice. (3 Marks) 25. Your department has organized a risk management training. Highlight three training methods that may be used. (3 Marks) 26. What does the acronym SWOT stand for as used in risk assessment? (4 Marks) 27. ABC Limited is carrying out job analysis for a branch manager job title. Highlight two products of the job analysis exercise. (4 Marks) 28. The management of Swahili Limited decided to use the stress interview on a candidate filling the position of a risk manager. Outline five features of a stress interview. (5 Marks) 29. Outline three competencies that an effective Risk Manager should possess. (3 Marks) 30. Organizations hold a reservoir of cash for a number of motives. Highlight four such motives. (4 Marks) 31. Some organizations prefer to outsource risk management function. Outline four reasons for the preference. (4 Marks) SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer any TWO questions from this section The maximum marks for each question is 20. 32. (a) An organization has suspected an attempted hacking of its information management system. Suggest five ways through which they can protect their data. (10 Marks) (b) You have been tasked to prepare a risk monitoring report. Describe five contents that you shall capture in the report. (10 Marks) 33. (a) You are a panelist in the selection of a risk management supervisor. Explain five factors that should be considered when selecting a candidate to fill the position. (10 Marks) (b) Suggest five reasons that necessitate the need to consider legal and regulatory requirements when undertaking risk mitigation plan in a company. (10 Marks) 34. (a) A consultant has identified employee injury to be an area that poses risks to the

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has THREE sections A, B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets (). 4. Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of Seven (7) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (20 MARKS) 1. ______________is not an asset. A. Land. B. Vehicle. C. Debtors. D. Creditors. 2. The cost of assets consumed on services used is also known as ____________. A. A revenue. B. An expense. C. A liability. D. An asset. 3. Divided are reported in? A. Income statement and balance sheet. B. Balance sheet. C. Income statement. D. Retained earnings statement. 4. To show how successful your business performed during a period of time, you would report its revenue and expenses in the? A. Balance sheet. B. Income statement. C. Statement of cash flows. D. Retained earnings statement. 5. Identify the principal objective of depreciation. A. Show records to Income Tax Department. B. To show previous year’s profit. C. To calculate net profit. D. To get a tax rebate. 6. _______________is the reason behind making a provision for depreciation in accounts. A. To purchase new assets. B. To charge the cost of assets against profits. C. To show current liabilities. D. To show the current value of assets. 7. Which of the following is not an inventory? A. Consumable tool. B. Finished products. C. Raw material. D. Machines. 8. Select from the statements given below the correct accounting equation. A. Total assets + Total Liabilities = Equity. B. Total Assets + equity = Liabilities. C. Total asset = Equity –Total liabilities. D. Total assets – Total liability = Equity. 9. ABC company has Noncurrent Assets of Ksh.300, 000, current Assets of Ksh. 120,000, current liabilities of Ksh. 42,000 and noncurrent liabilities of Ksh. 40,000. Using the accounting equation calculate the figure for equity. Equity = Assets – liability A. Ksh.338000 B. Ksh.160000 C. Ksh.340000 D. Ksh.162000 10. The following transactions took place in July 2023. _______ cannot be found in the sales journal. i. Credit sales to Mr. Kamau worth kshs. 20,000. ii. Cash sales worth kshs. 14,000. iii. Good worth Kshs. 3000 sold on credit to Mr. Kamau returned on 3rd July 2023. iv. Credit purchases worth Kshs. 60,000 from PREDE Limited. v. Credit sales to Mr. Wahiu worth Kshs. 40,000. A. Transaction i and iii. B. Transaction ii and v. C. Transaction i and v. D. None of the above. 11. Select from the list a component of a balance sheet. A. Cost of Goods sold. B. Profit and loss. C. Liabilities. D. Net profit. 12. Which of the following statement is incorrect in regard to recording a transaction? A. Expenses are debited. B. Assets are debited. C. Liabilities are credited. D. Income is debited. 13. A company buys goods worth Kshs. 200,000 and pays Kshs. 180,000. The amount owed to suppliers is Kshs. 20,000. The amount owed to creditors is? A. Payment made to creditors. B. Payment made to suppliers. C. Payment made by suppliers. D. Payment made by creditors. 14. Identify the correct definition of the term fixed installment method in calculating depreciation. A. The way to work out the loss of value of an asset over time. B. The amount of depreciation each year is fixed and equal in amount. C. An accelerated method for calculating an asset’s depreciation. D. System of recording larger depreciation expenses during the earlier years of the asset. 15. The amount of money that a company owes to its creditors is called? A.Credit worthiness. B. Liabilities. C. Loan. D. Asset. 16. Identify the period when current liabilities are paid. A. Within a year. B. After one year. C. Within five years. D. Subject to contingency. 17. From the list given below, select objectives for verification of liabilities. i. To ensure the existence of the liability. ii. To ensure ownership. iii. To ensure the obligation. iv. To ensure proper valuation. A. ii B. ii and iv C. i, ii, iii and iv D. i, iii, and iv 18. ________________________ is not a method of issuing goods. A. Random issue. B. Schedule issue. C. Imprest issue. D. Initial issue. 19. Identify a no depreciation method from the list given below. A. Straight-line depreciation. B. Declining balance depreciation. C. Zero depreciation. D. Units of production depreciation. 20. Select a scenario that illustrates a situation where a lender quantifies a borrower’s character to determine creditworthiness. A. XYZ finance will not approve Jane’s loan application based on rumours and gossip about him from her town. B. JM Finance will not approve loan due to late payments and a large debt load on her credit report. C. HHY Finance will approve a loan to Juma on the basis of his capacity to make a Kshs. 20,000 down payment. D. KK finance will approve a loan to Janise due to her good reputation in the society   SECTION B: 40 MARKS Answer all the questions in this section. 21. Define the following terms as used in a business entity. (4 Marks) i. Asset register. ii. Re-order levels. iii. Credit control. iv. A debt instruments. 22. Requisition form serve as a formal request for the purchase of goods or services needed for a project. Outline three features of a requisition form. (3 Marks) 23. An asset acquisition is the purchase of a company by buying its assets instead of its stock. State five factors to consider in acquisition of an asset in an organization. (5 Marks) 24. Highlight three reasons why an individual may not qualify in procurement exercise. (3 Marks) 25. A financial statement is a formal record of a company’s financial activities and position. Outline four types of financial statement. (4 Marks) 26. State five measures that may be used to control credit in a firm. (5 Marks) 27. An asset register,

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has THREE sections A, B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets (). 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of seven (8) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: 20 MARKS Answer ALL the questions in this section. Each question carries one (1) mark. 1. What does the acronym SWOT stand for? A. Special Weaknesses for Overcoming Threats B. Services, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats C. Strengths and Weaknesses for Overcoming Threats D. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats 2. The following are various ways in which businesses can showcase their commitment to social responsibility and sustainability as part of their corporate image. Which one is NOT? A. By implementing environmentally friendly practices, such as using sustainable materials or reducing carbon footprint. B. Exclusively focusing on profitability as customers primarily prioritize quality and price over sustainability factors. C. Engaging in community service or supporting charitable causes showcases the company’s social responsibility. D. Transparent reporting of social and environmental initiatives. 3. Which of the following is a key obstacle to success of non-traditional partnerships? A. Lack of trust between partners B. Lack of investment by multinational firm C. Lack of expertise within a multinational firm D. Lack of government support 4. Identify the correct hierarchy for strategies in an organization from top to bottom. A. Functional, Business Unit, Corporate. B. Business Unit, Corporate, Functional C. Corporate, Business Unit, Functional D. Functional, Corporate, Business Unit 5. How does quality assurance and safety policies put in place, impact business corporate image? A. By demonstrating the company’s commitment to delivering high-quality products or services and prioritizing the safety and well-being of customers. B. By increasing production costs, which may lead to higher prices and a negative perception among customers. C. By slowing down production processes, leading to delays in delivering products or services and disappointing customers. D. By creating a bureaucratic and rigid work environment, stifling innovation and creativity. 6. What is the main characteristic of the stakeholder approach in corporation? A. It is a critical perspective on corporations and business. B. Different groups have a legitimate interest in a corporation. C. A focus on social and environmental responsibilities of a corporation. D. The assumption that shareholders are not the main stakeholders in the corporation. 7. Ethical and socially responsible policies contribute to shaping a positive corporate image for a business by ______________________________________ A. Demonstrating its commitment to sustainable practices, fair treatment of stakeholders, and responsible business conduct. B. Providing tax benefits and financial incentives, which improves the company’s financial standing and reputation. C. Boosting employee morale and productivity, resulting in a positive work environment and improved customer service. D. Attracting media attention and generating positive publicity, which increases brand awareness and customer loyalty. 8. ___________________ contributes to corporate identity. A. Corporate mission B. Corporate vision C. Corporate objective D. Corporate culture. 9. The following are various ways in which branding and consistent messaging contribute to portraying a favorable corporate image for a business and its products; except? A. Effective branding ensures a cohesive visual identity, including logos, colors, and typography, that creates recognition and reinforces a positive corporate image. B. Consistent messaging across various communication channels, such as advertising, social media, and website, helps establish a unified brand voice and reinforces key messages, contributing to a favorable corporate image. C. Clear and consistent branding and messaging build trust and credibility among customers, creating a positive perception of the business and its products, and increasing customer loyalty. D. Frequent changes in branding and messaging can contribute to portraying a favorable corporate image, as it showcases adaptability and keeps the brand fresh and exciting 10. Identify which of these is a basic principle of Corporate Social Responsibility. A. Sustainability B. Reliability C. Philanthropy D. Profitability 11. An institution mission______________________________ A. Outlines an organizations belief and attitudes B. Is a symbol with the products of an organization? C. Outlines an organization strategy D. Outlines an organizations mandate 12. _________is a factor to consider when crafting a PR message. A. Using technical jargon to showcase expertise B. Providing lengthy and detailed information C. Tailoring the message to the target audience D. Including personal opinions and biases 13. ______________is a virtual platform that allows PR professionals to engage with journalists, bloggers, and influencers. A. Tik-Tok B. WhatsApp C. Facebook Messenger D. Twitter 14. The following are roles of communication in managing corporate image; except? A. It plays a key role in managing corporate image by effectively conveying the company’s brand messaging, values, and key messages. B. It maintains a cohesive and authentic corporate image by ensuring consistent messaging across all communication channels. C. It helps establish and strengthen relationships with customers, suppliers, and partners through effective communication and collaboration. D. It enables an organization to authenticate anonymous feedback received from stakeholders. 15. Which one of the following piece of information is contained in a Stakeholder register? A. Designations B. Qualifications C. Interests D. Net worth 16. Opportunities for social innovation are greatest when______________ A. Corporate Social Responsibility is aligned with a firm’s core skills and capabilities B. Corporate Social Responsibility spending on firm is larger than that of its competitors C. Corporate Social Responsibility is pursued by a firm to improve its reputation D. Corporate Social Responsibility is pursued by a firm to enhance human capital 17. The corporate level is where top management directs______________________ A. All employees for orientation B. Its efforts to stabilize recruitment needs C. Overall strategy of an organization D. Overall sales projections 18. Which of the following is a channel for gathering feedback from internal stakeholders? A. Circular. B. Meetings. C. Website D. Memo 19. The following are examples of genuine business innovations except? A. Development of less polluting fuel B. Investment in alternative energy sources C. New product targeted at

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has THREE sections A, B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets (). 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of Seven (7) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: 20 MARKS Answer ALL the questions in this section. Each question carries one (1) mark. 1. The following are tools used in customer survey maintenance, except? A. Knowledge bases. B. Messaging apps. C. ABC dashboards. D. Analytics dashboards. 2. _________is not a personal skill required by marketing researcher when carrying out a market survey. A. Problem solving skills. B. Desire to learn. C. Adaptability. D. Listening skills. 3. Which of the following is a type of customer satisfaction survey? A. Customer effort score B. Documentation C. Competitive edge D. Experience survey 4. The following methods are used in presenting data, except? A. Customer journey mapping. B. Customer surveys. C. Sentiments analysis. D. Documentation tool. 5. _________________is a method of collecting customer’s feedback. A. Online survey B. Video analysis C. Focus groups D. Post purchase 6. Identify a way through which employees may enhance customer satisfaction. A. High employee turn over B. Use a positive tone C. Implement customer feedback D. Use of body language. 7. _______________________is not an element of quality assurance system. A. Document control. B. Quality audits. C. Quality control procedures. D. Online control. 8. Select an aspect of Customer Relation management software (CRM) from the list below. A. Mobile affordability. B. Employee management. C. Contact management. D. Quality management system. 9. ________________is customer relationship management strategy. A. Over communication. B. Ignoring negative feedback. C. Automated Process. D. One-fit-size-all approach. 10. Identify one of the measures used in determining customer relationship. A. Social media analysis. B. Content analysis. C. Decantation. D. Making market segmentation. 11. Which one among the following is an advantage of carrying out market survey in improving customer satisfaction? A. Helps in risk mitigation. B. Helps the business to reduce employee’s turnover. C. Helps the business in acquiring loan. D. Helps the business in reducing sales turnover. 12. Which of the following is not a type of virtual platforms in an organization? A. Twitter. B. Facebook. C. Instagram. D. Website. 13. The following are steps in which customer’s satisfaction report is prepared, which one is the odd one out? A. Identify the customer group. B. Select survey respondents. C. Develop survey questions. D. Select the best alternative 14. ________________is not a method used in collecting customers’ information. A. Online survey. B. Questionnaire. C. Documentation. D. Observation. 15. The following are steps which management of virtual platform report is prepared, which one is not? A. Define the purpose of the virtual platform report, identify areas of improvement, Establish objectives and goals. B. Identify areas of improvement, establish objectives and goals, Define the purpose of the virtual platform report C. Define the purpose of the virtual platform report, establish objectives and goals, Identify areas of improvement. D. Define the purpose of the virtual platform report, establish objectives and goals, Identify areas of improvement. 16. Which of the following is a loyalty program for customers? A. Free gifts. B. Loyalty clothing. C. Loyalty costing. D. Loyalty cards. 17. The acronym IPR as used in business means? A. Internal property rights. B. Intellectual property rights. C. Intellectual people right. D. Intellectual public relation. 18. ________enables a business to have a clear picture of the number of customers or usage of their brand in comparison with its competitors. A. Market share B. Brand share C. Product share D. Customer share 19. The following ways can be used by an entrepreneur to achieve a competitive advantage in building customer’s experience, except? A. Consumer experience technology B. Using customer data C. Experience with customers D. Product E. Intellectual public relation. 20. _______________ a type of corporate social responsibility. A. Product launching. B. Product share. C. Free sample. D. Environmental sustainability. SECTION B: 40 MARKS Answer all questions in this section. 21. Define the following terms as used in maintaining customer experience. a) Competitive edge. (2 Marks) b) Intellectual property right. (2 Marks) 22. Distinguish the difference between product innovation and service innovation. (4 Marks) 23. Product innovation refers to the process of creating and introducing new or significantly improved products or services to the market. Highlight three strategies of product innovation. (3 Marks) 24. Product innovation helps companies stay relevant in their market and continue growing and improving over time. Outline four guidelines followed during product innovation (4 Marks) 25. Internal check is a system through which the accounting procedures of an organization are so laid out that the accounts procedures are not under the absolute and independent control of any person. State three benefits of internal check of a quick assistance system. (3 Marks) 26. Implementing a quality management system offers numerous benefits to business owners. Identify five challenges of implementing a quality management system in the business.(5 Marks) 27. Customer expectations describe how customers envision each interaction with the company. Outline four customers’ expectations from customers’ relationship management system. (4 Marks) 28. A satisfied customer will always do a repeat business. State four principles of good customer service. (4 Marks) 29. The purchase experience is a crucial aspect of marketing and offers several benefits to a business. Identify five such benefits. (5 Marks) 30. Health and safety considerations should be put in place in a retail outlet to enhance customer satisfaction. Outline four such health and safety considerations. (4 Marks) SECTION C: 40 MARKS Answer any TWO questions from this section The maximum marks for each question is 20. 31. a) You are required by your supervisor to carry out a survey to identify the behavior of your customers. Explain five survey tools you will employ. (10 Marks) b) Explain five customer experience tools. (10 Marks) 32.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has THREE sections A, B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets (). 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of Six (6) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that. all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (20 MARKS) Answer ALL the questions in this section. 1. The following are used to make an operational plan except, A. Vision and mission. B. Resource plan. C. Goals and objectives. D. Action plan. 2. Which of the following plays a vital role in team building process? A. Resources. B. Executive. C. Delegation. D. Assignment. 3. Who approves departmental budgets in an organization? A. Production Manager. B. Operations manager. C. Finance Officer. D. Accounting Officer. 4. Employee appraisal is carried out in accordance to______________ A. Organization policy B. Organization strategy C. Human resource policy D. Human resource strategy 5. The second stage in group development is known as? A. Adjourning B. Storming C. Forming D. Norming 6. Which of the following does not form an organization culture? A. Leadership. B. Mission and vision C. Marketing strategies D. Values and believes. 7. Which of the following indiscipline cases may attract an employee’s summary dismissal? A. Failure to meet deadlines B. Intoxication at work C. Absenteeism D. Inappropriate dressing 8. Which one of the following is a factor to consider when allocating resources for a job? A. Personal preferences. B. Task scope. C. Organization structure. D. Impulsive factors. 9. Which of the following is a way of motivating employees? A. Recognition. B. Complacency. C. Coercion. D. Deployment. 10. The following are change management strategies except, A. Transparent and timely communication. B. Active and two-way communication. C. Command and control approach. D. Providing training and support. 11. Which of the following statements is false about monitoring team performance? A. Performance plans for the team are set in accordance with operational plans. B. The teams’ progress is not planned in accordance with operational policy. C. Monitoring team performance is solely the responsibility of a team leader. D. Monitoring team performance is a not a one-time activity. 12. Professional development among employees is acquired through different approaches such as ___________________ A. Disciplinary actions. B. Job rotation C. Administrative procedures D. Onboarding procedures. 13. An organization must have a policy on? A. Training manual B. Organizational structure C. Compensation and benefits D. Company values and cultures 14. Which of the following factors doesn’t determine for a business goal? A. Employees Preference. B. Organization trends and disruptions. C. Mission and vision. D. Regulatory and legal requirements. 15. Which of the following is an organizational change? A. Social change B. Economic change C. Structural change D. Formational change 16. What is the primary purpose of an operational budget in a business? A. To allocate resources for daily operations B. To plan long term strategy goals C. To evaluate the company’s market position D. To track historical financial performance. 17. Which of the following does not apply to areas of employee improvements? A. Intrinsic Skills B. Communication skills. C. Time management. D. Interpersonal skills. 18. Employee grievances are addressed in accordance to _________________________. A. Human rights and law. B. Compensation guidelines. C. Human resources establishment. D. Human resources plan. 19. The following are steps involved in operational planning except, A. Identify the need for change. B. Define the change objectives. C. Hiring of change committee. D. Develop a change management plan. 20. Budgeting process involves __________________. A. Training and development. B. Recruitment and hiring. C. Needs identification. D. Project management. SECTION B: 40 MARKS Answer ALL the questions in this section. 21. An organization is in the process of shaping its organization culture. State four values that they may adopt. (4 Marks) 22. ABC Limited has demonstrated effective team work in its operations. Outline three benefits they may have derived from the team work. (3 Marks) 23. Outline three strategies an organization employs to optimize resources allocation and ensure efficient utilization. (4 Marks) 24. An organization is in the process of introducing change in its operations. Outline five reasons that may contribute to employee’s resistance to change. (5 Marks) 25. A supervisor has approached you to give advice on team work. Suggest three factors that may foster effective teamwork within an organization. (3 Marks) 26. State four factors an organization have in place to address environmental sustainability. (4 Marks) 27. Juhudi limited conducts performance appraisal at the end of every quarter. Outline three reasons for carrying out the exercise? (3 Marks) 28. ABC limited employees’ turnover has been high over the past two years. Outline five causes of labor turnover? (5 Marks) 29. Highlight four ways in which an organization ensures fairness and equity in rewarding employees’ performance. (4 Marks) 30. The supervisor at ABC Limited is reluctant in delegating duties. Outline five reasons for the reluctance. (5 Marks) SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer any TWO questions from this section The maximum marks for each question is 20. 31. (a) Company X is a well-established organization known for its strong and vibrant organizational culture. Highlight five strategies you would use to ensure the maintenance and preservation of the organizational culture during a period of rapid growth and expansion. (10 Marks) (b) Explain five potential performance appraisal methods you would consider using to assess employees’ performance. (10 Marks) 32. (a) A team leader has been tasked to explain the variances between the planned outcomes against the achieved outcomes. Analyse five causes of such variances. (10 Marks) (b) A consultant has recommended for a training in your department. Suggest five indicators that may have prompted the recommendation. (10 Marks) 33. (a) An organization has decided to adopt non-monetary rewards to motivate its employees due to its current financial constraints. Suggest five such rewards. (10 Marks) (b) Outline five ways that an organization may use to address identified performance

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This paper has THREE sections A, B and C. 2. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 3. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets (). 4. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of Seven (7) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: 20 MARKS Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries one (1) mark. 1. The first step the manager can do in the marketing research process is called_____________. A. Collecting data. B. Defining the objectives. C. Defining the solution. D. Designing the product. 2. Which of the following is a way of doing market research? A. Do segmentation. B. Start identifying your target market C. Talk to clients D. Document 3. Select from the answers given below, a purpose for conducting market research. A. Budget constraints. B. Previous success. C. Industry experience. D. Competitive analysis. 4. ______________is not a characteristic of research report. A. Clear structure. B. Objectivity. C. Recommendations. D. Comprehensive information. 5. The following activities are involved in data preparation and cleaning, except A. Verification of data accuracy. B. Establishment of data collection protocols. C. Data entry, coding and transformation. D. Identification and handling of missing data. 6. Selecting the right data storage equipment is crucial for ensuring ____________during data collection process. A. Storage. B. Performance. C. Ease of management. D. Accuracy. 7. The following are factors contributing to the decrease in customer satisfaction in a business, except A. Poor product quality. B. Personalization. C. Billing and pricing issues. D. Lack of convenience. 8. Identify an online platform that a marketer may use when carrying out a market survey. A. Google forms. B. Postal surveys. C. Printed questionnaire. D. Mail survey. 9. _____________is the method a business developer can use in collecting primary data. A. Camera B. Interview guide. C. Notebook D. Observation 10. The following are characteristics of research, except A. Research is not passive B. Research is systematic C. Research is not problem oriented D. Research is purposeful 11. Identify from the list given below, a data analysis technique. A. SWOT analysis B. Empirical analysis C. Scientific analysis D. Inferential analysis 12. One of the following is the reason for business failure, except A. Lack of market research. B. Poor financial control. C. Poor management. D. All of the above. 13. Research hypothesis can be classified into several categories, which one of the following is one of the category? A. Void hypothesis B. Null hypothesis C. Qualitative hypothesis D. Quantitative hypothesis 14. Which of the following is a type of data that a business collects? A. Family background data B. Education data C. Personal data D. Behavioral data 15. Which of the following is among the ways that companies use consumer data that they collect? A. To reward customers B. To refine a company’s marketing strategy C. To finance customers D. To bring more business 16. Collecting data is valuable because you can use it to make informed decisions, which of the following is not among the uses? A. Improving understanding of your audience. B. Identifying areas for improvement or expansion. C. Predicting future patterns. D. Drawing of budgets. 17. Which of the following is not an advantage of business research? A. Business research helps to identify opportunities and threats. B. Conducting market research for the business. C. Helps identify problems and using this information wisely decisions can be made to tackle the issue appropriately. D. Risk and uncertainties can be minimized by conducting business research in advance. 18. The following are factors to consider when selecting the most appropriate research tools and equipment for business research, except A. Research objectives. B. Research methodology. C. Data type and source. D. Location of data collection. 19. ______________________is a strategy for market expansion. A. Market research. B. Economies of scale. C. Product diversification. D. Market share. 20. The following are benefits of keeping research documents in a business, except A. Data retention policies. B. Documentation standards. C. Compliance with regulations. D. Data privacy concerns. SECTION B 40 MARKS Answer all the questions from this section. 21. You are the marketing manager at MTZ limited Outline three features you will consider when designing your services. (3 Marks) 22. Appropriate business location is a key consideration aspect for every organization. Highlight four factors you should consider when choosing appropriate business location. (4 Marks) 23. A business manager may prefer to use modern technology to improve on business development. State five benefits associated with the move. (5 Marks) 24. Highlight three reasons why evaluation of business idea is important in business development. (3 Marks) 25. You are the sales person at Zooro limited. State four distribution strategies that you may adopt to ensure that your products are available in the market. (4 Marks) 26. When conducting a market survey, a manager may prefer using an interview. Outline five advantages of using interview as method of data collection. (5 Marks) 27. State four ways in which a firm may benefit from conducting market research before starting operations. (4 Marks) 28. Secondary sources of information may be used to gather market intelligence. Highlight five challenges that a researcher may face when using such sources. (5 Marks) 29. State three reasons why some firms are not able to play significant role in economic development. (3 Marks) 30. Data analysis involves examining and interpreting data to extract meaningful insights and make informed decisions. Outline four programs that can be used to carryout data analysis. (4 Marks) SECTION C 40 MARKS Answer any TWO questions from this section. The maximum marks for each question is 20. 31. a) Charts and graphs are visual representations of data and are excellent for convening trends, relationships, and patterns. Explain five types of charts and graphs a market researcher may use in presenting data. (10 Marks) b) Explain five challenges a researcher may face when conducting