August 1, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. Candidates must answer the question in English. This paper consists of THREE (3) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A (40 Marks) Answer all questions in this section 1. Describe family therapy as a technique used in nutrition counseling. (2 Marks) 2. List FOUR characteristics of a poor counseling environment. (4 Marks) 3. Outline THREE unethical practices in counseling. (3 Marks) 4. List THREE methods mostly used by nutritionists when evaluating a client’s dietary compliance. (3 Marks) 5. Monitoring during nutrition counseling focuses on two areas. State the TWO areas. (2 Marks) 6. Recall any THREE indicators monitored during nutrition counseling. (3 Marks) 7. List TWO teaching aids that can be used during nutrition education and counseling session. (2 Marks) 8. State FIVE key messages that you would give to mothers with children less than 6 months old during counseling. (5 Marks) 9. State THREE methods that a counselor can use to follow up on their clients. (3 Marks) 10. Enumerate FIVE causes of poor adherence and acceptability of a care plan among clients. (5 Marks) 11. List any FOUR the sources of information for the nutrition counselor. (4 Marks) 12. The nutrition care process is comprised of four distinct yet connected steps. Name the FOUR steps. (4 Marks)   SECTION B (60 MARKS) Answer any three questions in this section 13. You have been employed by a Referral hospital as a nutritionist; a) Explain the FIVE principles of nutrition education and counseling that you would adhere to when counseling your clients. (10 Marks) b) Discuss FIVE ways of improving adherence among your clients. (10 Marks) 14. Nutrition education and counseling is one of the intervention that has proven to be effective when addressing lifestyle change and food habits; a) Give THREE differences between nutrition counseling and nutrition education. (6 Marks) b) Explain SEVEN communication skills that a nutrition counselor should have (14 Marks) 15. Children 6-9 months old tend to have more nutrition problems related to dietary changes and physiological changes at this stage. a) Discuss THREE nutritional challenges experienced at this stage that should be addressed during counseling. (6 Marks) b) Give FOUR characteristics of a good complementary feed. (4 Marks) c) List TEN key messages given to mothers with children 6-9 months old during nutrition counseling. (10 Marks) 16. Meal planning is one of the activities done during nutrition counseling. Nutritionists guide their clients to come up with appropriate meals that can suite their nutritional needs. a) Explain THREE factors that affect meal planning. (6 Marks) b) Discuss FOUR principles of diet planning that one should consider when modifying a client’s diet. (8 Marks) c) Give SIX importance of meal planning. (6 Marks)

Nutrition Education and Counselling March/April 2023 Past Paper Level 6 – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. Candidates must answer the question in English. This paper consists of SEVEN (7) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (20 MARKS) Answer ALL Questions in this section. 1. What is the first step in the Nutrition Care Process (NCP)? A. Nutrition Assessment B. Nutrition Diagnosis C. Nutrition Intervention D. Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation 2. Which of the following is not a component of nutrition assessment? A. Anthropometric measurements B. Biochemical data C. Medical history D. Medication reconciliation 3. What is the purpose of nutrition diagnosis? A. To identify the patient’s medical conditions B. To determine the patient’s nutritional needs C. To establish goals and outcomes for nutrition intervention D. To evaluate the effectiveness of nutrition intervention 4. What is the difference between a nutrition diagnosis and a medical diagnosis? A. Nutrition diagnosis describes the patient’s nutritional status, while medical diagnosis describes their medical condition. B. Nutrition diagnosis is made by a registered dietitian, while medical diagnosis is made by a physician. C. Nutrition diagnosis is used to guide nutrition interventions, while medical diagnosis is used to guide medical treatments. D. There is no difference between a nutrition diagnosis and a medical diagnosis. 5. What is the purpose of nutrition monitoring and evaluation? A. To determine the patient’s nutritional needs B. To assess the effectiveness of nutrition interventions C. To diagnose the patient’s nutritional status D. To establish goals and outcomes for nutrition intervention 6. Who is responsible for implementing the Nutrition Care Process? A. Registered dietitians B. Physicians C. Nurses D. Pharmacist 7. What is the purpose of anthropometric measurements in nutritional assessment? A. To assess a person’s body composition B. To diagnose medical conditions C. To measure cognitive function D. To evaluate physical fitness 8. What is the role of the interdisciplinary team in the Nutrition Care Process? A. To provide medical treatment to the patient B. To collaborate with the registered dietitian in implementing nutrition interventions C. To make nutrition diagnoses D. To assess the patient’s nutritional status 9. Which of the following is a limitation of using dietary records for dietary assessment? A. They are prone to measurement error B. They are subject to recall bias C. They are time-consuming for both the participant and researcher D. They do not provide information about individual meals 10. Which of the following is an example of a nutrition-related goal? A. Increase physical activity B. Reduce medication side effects C. Increase consumption of fruits and vegetables D. Reduce hospital stay 11. What is the purpose of using multiple methods of dietary assessment? A. To reduce measurement error B. To decrease the amount of time required for assessment C. To improve accuracy of self-reported data D. To decrease the cost of assessment 12. What are the parts of NCP? A. Nutrition, Care, Process B. Evaluation, Assessment, Diagnosis, Intervention C. Diagnosis, Process, Evaluation D. Assessment, Diagnosis, Nutrition, Monitoring 13. What is the purpose of the Nutrition Care Process? A. To diagnose medical conditions B. To establish goals and outcomes for nutrition interventions C. To prescribe medications D. To provide medical treatment 14. Which of the following is a limitation of using BMI as a measure of body composition? A. It does not differentiate between fat mass and lean mass B. It is expensive to measure C. It is time-consuming to measure D. It is subject to recall bias 15. Which of the following is an example of an anthropometric measurement? A. Blood pressure B. Body mass index (BMI) C. Fasting blood glucose D. White blood cell count 16. Which of the following is a limitation of using food frequency questionnaires for dietary assessment? A. They are expensive to administer B. They require trained personnel to administer C. They are subject to recall bias D. They do not provide detailed information about individual meals 17. Which of the following is a benefit of using 24-hour dietary recalls for dietary assessment? A. They are less time-consuming than other methods B. They provide detailed information about individual meals C. They are less prone to measurement error than other methods D. They are less expensive than other methods 18. What is the purpose of measuring waist circumference? A. To assess body fat distribution B. To measure overall body size C. To evaluate muscular strength D. To assess joint flexibility 19. What is the purpose of writing a PES statement in a nutrition diagnosis? A. To identify the underlying cause of the nutrition-related problem B. To identify the signs and symptoms of the nutrition-related problem C. To specify the nutrition-related problem, the etiology, and the signs and symptoms D. To evaluate the effectiveness of the nutrition intervention 20. How is nutrition diagnosis formulated? A. Based on subjective symptoms reported by the patient B. Based on objective measurements such as blood tests and anthropometric measurements C. Based on a comprehensive assessment of the patient’s nutrition status D. Based on the patient’s medical history   SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer ALL Questions in this section. 21. Define the following terms as used in Nutrition Care Process: a. Nutrition assessment. (1 Mark) b. Nutrition Screening. (1 Mark) 22. Differentiate between adequate intake and recommended daily intake. (4 Marks) 23. Mention FOUR ways in which illness can compromise the nutrition status of an individual. (4 Marks) 24. Identify any TWO benefits of evidence-based practice in nutrition care. (2 Marks) 25. Briefly discuss the importance of growth monitoring in children. (4 Marks) 26. State FOUR qualities of a well written diagnostic statement. (4 Marks) 27. What are FOUR limitations of using food frequency questionnaire during nutrition assessment? (4 Marks) 28. John is a 22-year-old college student. He weighs 60 kg and a height

Nutrition Care Processes March/April 2023 Past Paper Level 5 – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer the questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. This paper consists of THREE (3) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: [40 MARKS] Answer ALL the questions in this section. 1. Define the term reintegration as used in coordination of rehabilitation programs. (2 Marks) 2. State FOUR types of rehabilitation programs. (4 Marks) 3. Highlight FOUR benefits of rehabilitation linkages. (4 Marks) 4. Outline FIVE effects of drugs and substance abuse. (5 Marks) 5. List THREE components of an individual treatment plan. (3 Marks) 6. Highlight FOUR benefits of social reintegration in coordination of rehabilitation programs. (4 Marks) 7. Outline FIVE advantages of monitoring and evaluation of rehabilitation programs. (5 Marks) 8. Identify FIVE categories of maladjustment issues among the youths. (5 Marks) 9. List THREE models of disability. (3 Marks) 10. State FIVE challenges faced by ex-prisoners in our society today. (5 Marks)   SECTION B: [60 MARKS] Answer any THREE questions from this section. 11. The Economic Survey 2022 report released in December indicates that the total crime reported to law enforcement agencies increased from 69, 645 in 2020 to 81,272 in 2021. a) Evaluate FIVE effects of crime in the society. (10 Marks) b) Describe FIVE forms of sexual deviants in the society. (10 Marks) 12. Sociological theories of deviance are those that use social context and social pressures to explain deviance. a) Describe the following theories in relation to deviance. i. Social strain theory. (2 Marks) ii. Conflict theory. (2 Marks) iii. Labeling theory. (2 Marks) iv. Differential association theory. (2 Marks) v. Biological theories. (2 Marks) b) Describe FIVE external control mechanisms to deviance according to social control theory. (10 Marks) 13. Kenya has the third highest teenage pregnancies worldwide where one in every five adolescents aged 15-19 are already mothers or pregnant with their first child. a) Analyze FIVE causes of increased teenage pregnancies. (10 Marks) b) Discuss FIVE solutions to the increase in teenage pregnancy. (10 Marks) 14. You have been employed as a probation officer in Community X to carry out social inquiry on criminal offenders. a) Explain FIVE aims of social investigations. (10 Marks) b) Discuss FIVE sources of information from which to collect information in the process of inquiry. (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer the questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. This paper consists of TWO (2) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that both pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: [40 MARKS] Answer ALL the questions in this section. 1. State FOUR characteristics of conflict. (4 Marks) 2. Mention FOUR actors involved in peace building process. (4 Marks) 3. State FOUR benefits of writing conflict resolution reports. 4 Marks) 4. Outline FIVE desirable effects of conflict in the community. (5 Marks) 5. Highlight THREE causes of conflict in society. (3 Marks) 6. State FOUR ways of documenting conflict resolution activities. (4 Marks ) 7. Identify FIVE causes of domestic violence. (5 Marks) 8. List THREE ways of disseminating information to the stakeholders during peace building activities. (3 Marks) 9. Mention FOUR types of primary sources of data. (4 Marks) 10. Identify FOUR benefits of conflict resolution to the society. (4 Marks)   SECTION B: [60 MARKS] (Answer any THREE questions in this section) 11. Effectiveness of a leader determines the outcome of conflict resolution and management process. a) Describe FIVE types of leadership styles used in conflict management. (10 Marks) b) Discuss FIVE major sections of a report. (10 Marks) 12. Peace building process is a technique for addressing conflicts in the communities. a) Highlight FIVE benefits of engaging in peace building activity. (10 Marks) b) Analyze FIVE measures to successfully engage youth in peace building programs in the community. (10 Marks) 13. Conflict is inevitable and occurs in various forms. a) Discuss FIVE types of conflict in the society. (10 Marks) b) Evaluate FIVE conflict management strategies. (10 Marks) 14. Conflict resolution is the process aimed at finding a solution to disagreements in society. a) Analyze FIVE conflict resolution skills. (10 Marks) b) Describe the FIVE steps in conflict resolution process. (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum Marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. This paper consists of TWO (2) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that both pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: (40 MARKS) Attempt ALL the questions in this section. 1. Identify FOUR objectives of project planning. (4 Marks) 2. Outline FOUR pitfalls of root cause analysis. (4 Marks) 3. State FOUR benefits of managing community resources. (4 Marks) 4. List FOUR types of costs associated with community projects. (4 Marks) 5. Highlight FOUR reasons for sustainability of community projects. (4 Marks) 6. Identify FOUR merits of community participation in management of projects. (4 Marks) 7. Give FOUR ways of community project termination. (4 Marks) 8. State FOUR purpose of records in project implementation. (4 Marks) 9. Identify FOUR problems you may face when carrying out project plans. (4 Marks) 10. State FOUR types of project evaluation. (4 Marks)   SECTION B: (60 MARKS) Attempt any THREE questions from this section. 11. A project steering committee helps guide the project throughout its management cycle. a) Explain SIX functions of a community resource committee during project implementation. (12 Marks) b) Discuss FOUR types of risks in community projects. (8 Marks) 12. Project implementation is a crucial stage where the main objective of a project is realized. a) Discuss FIVE steps of project implementation. (10 Marks) b) Describe FIVE key elements of a project report. (10 Marks) 13. Needs assessment is influenced by a dissatisfaction with the current situation and a desire for change. a) Explain FIVE importance of conducting community needs assessment when carrying out project activities. (10 Marks) b) Discuss FIVE community needs assessment tools. (10 Marks) 14. Project log-frame and theory of change are two important tools used to describe how programs lead to results. a) Highlight FOUR differences between project log-frame and theory of change. (8 Marks) b) Discuss SIX ways of gathering information during project monitoring and evaluation. (12 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. Answer the questions as per the instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. This paper consists of SIX (6) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (20 MARKS) Attempt ALL the questions in this section. 1. Identify the individuals who develop home-based care programmes. A. Government B. Social policy makers C. Donors D. Non-governmental institutions. 2. Basic nursing care includes the following EXCEPT: A. Wound cleaning B. Nutrition C. Technical support D. Bathing 3. Which of the following statements is true? A. Between 70 % to 90% of care takes place at home B. Between 50% to 60% of care takes place at home C. Between 10% to 20% of care takes place at home D. Between 60% to 70% of care takes place at home 4. Periodic assessment is also referred to as: A. Monitoring B. Evaluation C. Continuous assessment D. Management 5. The first requirement for home based care is to ensure that: A. Basic needs are met B. Hospitals are well equipped C. People are well educated D. There is enough funding. 6. Home-based care programmes are continually changing to respond to? A. Funding and support B. Needs of families C. Population growth D. Medical needs 7. Day to day assessment of activities is also called? A. Evaluation B. Monitoring C. Management D. Leadership 8. Home-based care focuses on the care of: A. Ill people and their families B. The poor C. Children D. Women 9. The following are challenges that face home based care programmes EXCEPT: A. Funding B. Sustaining the program C. Needs assessment D. Planning. 10. Which of the following is an essential element of palliative care? A. Pain relief B. Provision of food C. Provision of mobility services D. Social support. 11. The daily challenges of trying to provide care in the home often exhaust family caregivers. These caregivers are often poor, malnourished and overwhelmed with their caregiving responsibilities. Identify the kind of care that is needed to the caregivers. A. Palliative care B. Day care C. Respite care D. Pain relief care 12. Which statement can best describe the community needs assessment phase for home – based care? A. Gather information on the needs of people, caregivers and potential members of the Home-Based Care team. B. Create a community team. C. Explore and choose methods to respond to the health and support needs and plan home based care. D. Evaluate what works well and what does not. 13. Community Home Based Care draws on two strengths that exist throughout the world. Identify the categories. A. Government and Non-governmental institutions B. Faith based organizations and communities C. Families and communities D. Donors and government. 14.The following are responsibilities of home-based care providers EXCEPT: A. Policy making. B. Providing counselling services C. Educating the community D. Promoting human rights. 15. An individual care plan may include the following except: A. Assessment of the client/patient’s needs B. Identification of effective interventions C. Identification of resources D. Policy development. 16. Qualities of a home-based care provider should include the following. Which one is not? A. Empathy B. Respect C. Sympathy D. Competent. 17. Home-based care assessment tools are developed in collaboration with the Ministry of: A. Home affairs B. Health C. Finance D. Housing 18. Evaluation of home-based care program progress, impact and development is done by: A. Policy makers only B. Program implementors only. C. The government only D. policy makers, implementors, home based care providers, the government, those receiving the services. 19. The home-based care assessment team is identified as per the: A. Organization policy. B. Need assessment C. Government guidelines D. Community needs 20. Focusing on home-based care program and setting health priorities is carried out based on: A. The assessment findings B. Organization policy C. Individual care plan D. Government requirements.   SECTION B (40 MARKS) Attempt ALL the questions in this section. 21. Define the term needs assessment in reference to home-based care. (2 marks) 22. Explain THREE things you need to consider when assessing the physical location of a community? (6 marks) 23. Identify FOUR groups of people in need of home-based care services. (4 marks) 24. Discuss THREE roles of home-based care providers. (6 marks) 25. What is eligibility criteria? (2 marks) 26. Explain FOUR qualities of people who participate in providing home-based care. (8 marks) 27. Define the term hospice. (2 marks) 28. Explain why there is need to care for the caregiver. (2 marks) 29. Elaborate the meaning of the term palliative care. (2 marks) 30. Discuss THREE challenges facing home-based care service provision. (6 marks)   SECTION C. (40 Marks) Answer any TWO questions from this section. 31. What are the major components of needs assessment in home-based care? (20 marks) 32. Home-based care in many communities is facing numerous obstacles affecting it success. Identify FIVE challenges home-based care is facing. (20 marks) 33. Which FIVE ethical challenges do social workers and other practitioners working in the home – based care face in the performance of their duty? (20 marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. This paper consists of FOUR (4) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: [10 MARKS] Answer ALL the questions in this section. 1. Which of the following factor is NOT important when developing a resource register? A. Extravagant use of resources. B. Inventory control. C. Controlling resource use. D. Accounting for resources. 2. Which of the following is a participatory resource management strategy? A. Conducting Elections for Community Resource Committee Members B. Appointing Resource Committee Members C. Dictating What Is to Be Done D. Using police officer to protect a community forest. 3. Which of the following is not a component of project work plan? A. Date B. Required resources C. Time D. Person. 4. Which of the following represents the correct order of a mapping process? A. Take actions-sustaining mapping efforts –pre-mapping-mapping. B. Mapping-pre-mapping-evaluates. C. Pre-mapping-mapping- take action-maintains mapping efforts. D. pre-mapping-take action – maintain efforts 5. Which of the following is not a reason for developing a resource mobilization plan? A. Guide in resource mobilization B. Donor requirement C. Borrowing D. Ease of execution. 6. Identify the importance of developing a resource management plan. A. To help you map out how to move from point A to B. B. To make your life easier C. To get extra resource for personal use. D. To help you stop critics benefiting from project resources 7. Which among the following is not a type of training? A. Orientation training B. Real training C. Job training D. Safety training 8. Which of the following is an indicator of resource management gap? A. Burning Charcoal for Sale B. Building Gabions along Slide Areas. C. Recycling Some Waste Products D. Occupying a stalled building. 9. Who accounts for project resources? A. Project Manager B. Community Members C. Asset Auditors D. Donors 10. Identify a natural resource from among the following: A. Land B. Coffee plantation C. Structures such as buildings D. Roads   SECTION B. [40 MARKS] Answer ALL the questions in this section. 11. Outline THREE tools that are used in fundraising for a community project. (3 marks) 12. Give FOUR ways used to identify project needs. (4 marks) 13. You are employed as a community resource mobilizer in a local community-based organization. What are the FOUR challenges you may encounter in resource mobilization? (4 marks) 14. Highlight FOUR uses of a register in managing community resources. (4 marks) 15. Name FOUR key partners in resource management. (4 marks) 16. List FOUR ways of identifying community resources? (4 marks) 17. List FOUR factors affecting resource management plans? (4 marks) 18. Highlight FOUR ways to ensure there is success in project resource management. (4 marks) 19. State FOUR uses of an office as a resource? (4 marks) 20. Resource mapping is a method for plotting information on the occurrence, distribution, access and use of resources within the economic and cultural domain of a specific community. Highlight FIVE uses of resource mapping in resource mobilization. (5 marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. This paper consists of FOUR (4) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A: [10 MARKS] Answer ALL the questions in this section. 1. Leadership is the ability of an individual to influence, motivate and enable other to contribute towards the effectiveness and success of the organization. Identify the leadership style that is most effective in promoting group goals. A. Authoritarian. B. Laissez-faire. C. Democratic. D. Autocratic. 2. Which of the following is a positive effect of conflict in community-based groups? A. Increases bitterness. B. Leads to destruction and bloodshed C. Leads to intergroup tension D. Leads to redefinition of value systems. 3. Identify a group whose members share personal and enduring relationships. A. Primary groups. B. Social groups. C. Secondary groups. D. Welfare groups. 4. Which of the following is a stage in group formation? A. Strategizing B. Storming C. Education D. Transforming 5.____________ is a role of external facilitator in conflicting groups in a community. A. Managing the process B. Providing land C. Supporting collaboration D. Providing financial resources 6.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a community-based group? A. Should have a leader B. Should have a name C. Should support a political party D. Should have objectives 7. Identify an example of a community-based groups: A. WhatsApp groups B. Facebook groups C. Group of alumni D. Self Help group 8.Which of the following is not a factor influencing the likelihood that ethnic parties will be formed? A. Ethnic demographics. B. History of conflict between groups. C. Presence or absence of other bases of differences. D. Climate 9.Which of the following indicators of latent conflict is not as a result of disrupted communication? A. Silence B. Hardening, stubbornness, sticking to own point of view C. Spread of gossip, rumours, intrigues and accusations D. Cool, very formal ways of behaviour. 10.Group dynamics is referred to as: A. Group leadership B. How groups are formed, their structure and processes which are followed in their functioning. C. How a group performs it activities D. Group evolvement   SECTION B: [40 MARKS] Answer ALL the questions in this section. 11. List FOUR sources of conflict in community-based groups. (4 marks) 12. Outline FOUR qualities of a good program that can be used to train groups. (4 marks) 13. Leadership is the process of influencing positive change in the community. Outline FOUR roles of leaders in community participation during awareness and sensitization activities. (4 marks) 14. Community mobilization is a process of bringing community members together to achieve a common goal. Highlight FOUR steps that you will follow in formation of the community-based group. (4 marks) 15. Outline FOUR emerging issues in community-based organizations. (4 marks) 16. Outline FOUR benefits of identifying a target group when implementing a project in the community. (4 marks) 17. Dan is a community development worker in a local community organization. When starting work, he engages community leaders to support his activities. Highlight THREE activities that community-based groups perform. (3 marks) 18. Highlight THREE roles of a social development officer in community-based groups. (3 marks) 19. Giving relevant examples, explain THREE challenges experienced by community-based groups. (6 marks) 20. What are the FOUR conflict resolution methods used in community-based groups. (4 marks)