August 6, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE: i. You have 3 hours to answer all the questions. ii. Marks for each question are indicated in brackets iii. This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in each question iv. You are provided with a separate answer booklet v. Do not write on the question paper. vi. Answer all questions in English. This paper consists of seven printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicted and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (20 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section Each question carries one (1) mark. 1. Why would an organization upgrade its computer system. A. When it is used sparingly B. To prevent latest security vulnerabilities C. To supports the curricular goals D. Limiting employees from achieving their goals 2. What is the name given to the physical parts of a computer. A. Hardware B. Hard Drive C. Disk Drive D. Software 3. Which of the following system reflects maximum ICT integration. A. Electronic library B. Digital library C. Automated library D. Hybrid library 4. ……………is the other name for computer programs. A. Software B. RAM C. Input Devices D. Hardware 5. In computer terminology, processed data is called———– A. information B. variables C. communication D. report 6. The following are on -the -job training methods except A. Apprenticeship B. Delegation C. Secondments D. Lectures 7. Which of the following is not a procurement method used in acquiring ICT equipment. A. Tendering B. Ordering C. Request for quotation D. Direct procurement 8. Which one of the following is not a social media platform A. Gmail B. YouTube C. Facebook D. Instagram 9. ………….. is the part of a computer that allows a user to put information into the computer. A. Output Device B. Software C. Operating System D. Input Device 10. What does WAN stand for in information communication technology A. Wide area network B. Wide access network C. Wide arithmetic network D. Wide access network 11. …………………is a group of independent computers attached to one another through communication media A. Internet B. E-mail C. Network D. All of the above 12. Which one of the following is an output device of a computer. A. Monitor B. Scanner C. Mouse D. Keyboard 13. The right to use a piece of software in operating a computer is termed as………… A. Copyright B. Patent C. License D. Installation 14. The memory which is used in the computer as temporary memory is—— A. read only memory (ROM) B. Random access memory (RAM) C. local area networking (LAN) D. all of above 15. The network which is used in an office to connect computers in a small geographical area is known as? A. read only memory (ROM) B. Random access memory (RAM) C. local area networking (LAN) D. wide area network (WAN) 16. What is the main storage medium within the system unit of the computer? A. CD-ROM B. FDD C. HDD D. USB 17. Which of these is not a factor of the IT Security Policy. A. Prevention of Misuse B. Disciplinary procedures C. Installation of software D. Staff responsibilities 18. Which is the first phase of an ICT project management cycle. A. Initiation B. Planning C. Execution D. Closure 19. Which one of the following is a consequence of failure to update your computer. A. Exposes the computer to security threats B. Makes your computer safe C. Ensure safety of private data D. Allows one to share information 20. Which of the following is not one of the current major social trends in ecommerce? A. concerns about online privacy decline B. controversy over content regulation and controls C. e-books gaining wide acceptance D. internet security continues to decline   SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Marks for each part of each question is indicated in the brackets () 21. Explain four ways on how an organization will dispose of its obsolete ICT equipment (4 marks) 22. Outline four functions of ICT in an enterprise (4 marks) 23. List four ways of evaluating an information system vendor (4marks) 24. Mention five factors that affect the choice of a software (5 marks) 25. State four functions of a router in networking (4 marks) 26. Explain four functions of Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) in ICT. (4 marks) 27. There are many different computer network problems that can affect the performance of the network. Identify four causes of such problems. (4 marks) 28. Name three threats to computers (3 marks) 29. List any FOUR types of hardware components. (4 marks) 30. State four factors to consider when carrying out training needs assessment for ICT personnel (4 marks)   SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer two questions ONLY Marks for each part of each question is indicated in the brackets () 31. a). Specification is a document used in communicating the requirement of a buyer to a supplier when buying ICT equipment. Outline eight types of information contained in that document. (8 marks) b. Most organizations are investing in computer networking. Discuss using relevant examples six industries and business organizations that are currently using computer networking. (12 marks) 32. a. Explain five benefits of conducting ICT needs assessment in an organization. (10 marks) b). Explain five reasons why it is important for an organization to have ICT policy in place. (10 marks) 33. a) Online services for the business provide a number of advantages. Discuss five such advantages. (10 marks) b. Explain five reasons that may make a manager in an organization reluctant to adopt a new technology in the operations of the organization. (10 marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE You have THREE (3) hours to answer all the questions. Marks for each question are as indicated in the brackets The paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of SEVEN (7) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A 🙁 20MARKS) Answer all questions in this section in the answer booklet provided. Each question carries one (1) mark. 1. Which of the following is incorrect risk management principle? A. Accept no unnecessary risks B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level C. Integrate in to operations and activity planning at all levels D. Apply the process as needed 2. The following is included in PESTEL analysis except. A. Production B. Legal C. Social D. Economic 3. Risk management is defined as__________________ A. Decision making process B. Awingsafetyprogram C. Common practices to reduce injuries stores personnel D. Adecision-making tool for commanders 4. Who among the following falls under the scope of risk management? A. Only personnel on duty B. Administration C. All personnel,Nopersonnel,anyone D. None of the above 5. Which is the third step in the risk management process? A. Identify hazards B. Implement controls C. Assess the hazards D. Make control decisions 6. In overseas markets higher returns are usually associated with——————————— A. High risk and high attractiveness. B. High risk and low attractiveness. C. Low risk and high attractiveness. D. Low risk and low attractiveness. 7. Identify a source of internal risks from among the following A. operational factors B. economic factors C. natural factors D. political factors 8. When compiling a Risk Management job description, it is important to display the following skills except. A. Analytical skills B. Commercial awareness skills C. Planning and organizational skills D. Health skills 9. Which of the following risks is not within the scope of financial risk management A. Market risk B. Operation risk C. Health risk D. Credit risk 10. The following are types of organizational structures except. A. Hierarchical organization structure. B. Functional organization structure. C. Horizontal organization flat organization D. Departmental organisational structure 11. Define hazard in relation to risk management A. It’s a condition that creates the environment or increases the chances of the loss occurring B. It’s a condition that creates the environment or decreases the chances of the loss occurring C. It’s a condition that decreases the environment or increases the chances of the loss occurring. D. It’s a condition that decreases the environment or decreases the chances of the loss occurring. 12. —————–is an uncertainty that can have a negative effect on meeting project objective. A. Risk utility B. Risk tolerance C. Risk management D. Risk 13. Identify the test which is used by the human resource department to ensure that they get the right personnel. A. Competency test B. Uncertainty test C. Risk test D. Awareness test. 14. Which among the following is a tool used in risk identification A. Documentation reviews B. Questionnaire C. Evaluation D. Presentation 15. Which of the following is a factor to consider when selecting an insurance A. Company’s attitude towards claim B. Financial stability C. The number of company directors D. The cost of company products 16. The introductory section of a risk report should aim to: A. Identify the specific focus of the study. B. Provide a rationale for the dissertation, or article. C. Grab the reader’s attention. D. All of the above. 17. What is the purpose of conclusion in a risk report? A. It just a summary what the article already said. B. It summarizes the key findings in relation to the research questions. C. It contains a useful review of the relevant literature. D. It outlines the methodological procedures that were mployed. 18. The recruitment of personnel to form the risk management team may be through the following except. A. Selection B. Referrals C. Outsourcing D. Headhunting 19. John Strauss is a Project Manager for a reforestation project. To identify the risks involved, John sent a questionnaire to gather inputs from experts. Which technique is John using? A. Delphi technique B. Interviews C. Brain storming D. Documentation review 20. Monitoring of risks includes the following except? A. Risk Identification and Analysis B. Ongoing Monitoring C. Separate Evaluations D. Reporting Deficiencies   SECTION B:(MARKS 40) Answer all the questions from this section 21. State three ways in which transference strategies are used in risk mitigation (3 marks) 22. Highlight five roles of risk management team. (5 marks) 23. Identify four shortcomings of risk management information systems. (4marks) 24. Every organisation needs to monitor and evaluate risk management process. Identify four benefits of doing so. (4marks) 25. State four factors that an organization may consider when preparing recruitment strategy (4 marks) 26. Propose four measures that a business management officer may take to ensure effective risk mitigation planning. (4 marks) 27. State four disadvantages of a risk management matrix as used in an organization (4 marks) 28. Name four types of market risks. (4marks) 29. Analyse four challenges that a business management officer may face while carrying out project evaluation. (4marks) 30. Outline four consequences of poor risk management to an organization. ( 4 marks)   SECTION C (MARKS 40) Attempt any TWO questions they carry equal marks 20 marks each. 31. You have been employed as a risk manager in a production company which deals with oil production. In the recent years the company has been facing various risks. a) Explain five ways of mitigating the risks in that organization and give relevant examples . (10 marks) b) Explain five objectives of such a risk management plan. (10marks) 32. TAZACK Limited is a small medium size enterprise dealing with clearing and forwarding of used motor vehicles imported from Japan. The management is planning to establish a risk management team. The management has approached you for expert advice: a) Describe how to carry

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE You have THREE (3) hours to answer all the questions. Marks for each question are as indicated in the brackets The paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of EIGHT (8) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (20 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section, in the answer booklet provided. Each question carries one (1) mark. 1. Identify the name for the assets that can be converted into cash within a short period. A. Current assets B. Fixed assets C. Intangible assets D. Real assets 2. One of the items below does not represent a capital expenditure. Which one is it? A. Security system upgrades B. Bulb replacement C. New building exterior painting D. Machine installation 3. Which of the aspects below is not an asset maintenance activity. A. Servicing B. Depreciating C. Repairing D. Replacing 4. A business has a capital of sh. 700,000 and assets totaling sh. 1,200,000. What is the amount of liabilities as guided in the accounting equation? A. 1,900,00 B. -500,000 C. 500,000 D. 1,400,000 5. Which list consists of balance sheet items? A. Assets, liabilities and capital B. Revenues, expenses, gains and losses C. Assets, liabilities and purchases D. Revenues, expenses, gains and dividends 6. Identify one item below that decreases capital to a business. A. Investments by owners B. Losses C. Profits D. Short term loans 7. Which of the following terms best describes an auditor? A. Watchman B. Manager C. Supervisor D. Watchdog 8. ————– is the estimated economic life of an asset. A. Residual value B. Book value C. Salvage value D. Useful life 9. Which of the following is not a factor to consider when determining stock level in an organization? A. Lead time B. Seasonality C. Demand D. Government policy 10. Which of the following items is a liability? A. Land B. Machinery C. Cash D. Debt 11. ……………………….is a tangible asset. A. Goodwill B. Patent C. copyright D. inventory 12. Select from among the following, a financial statement that shows the financial position of the company. A. Balance sheet B. Statement of owner’s equity C. Statement of cash flows D. Income statement 13. Working capital is an indicator of a firms’ ……………. A. Asset utilization B. Amount of non-current liabilities C. Liquidity D. Amount of non- current assets 14. If the proceeds received from the disposal of a fixed asset are greater than its net book value, then the company would recognize………………….. A. An expense B. A gain C. A loss D. A break even 15. Which of the following account is not a liability account? A. Accounts payable B. Accrued expenses C. Cash D. Notes payable 16. John purchased a delivery van at a cost of Ksh. 900,000. The van has an estimated useful life of 10 years and a residual value of Ksh. 100,000. What will be the value of the van to be transferred to the balance sheet at the end of the second year? A. Ksh. 80,000 B. Ksh. 160,000 C. Ksh. 740,000 D. Ksh. 820,000 17. What is the name given to cash taken from business for personal use by the proprietor? A. Loss B. Drawings C. savings D. Loan 18. One shopkeeper was offering two successive discounts of 15% and 10% of an item. While the second one is offering flat 25% discount on the same item. Which shopkeeper should I buy the item from? A. First shopkeeper B. Second shopkeeper C. Any of them D. Data insufficient 19. …………………….. is a current liability. A. Dividends B. Long term lease C. Deferred revenue D. Bonds payable 20. The accounts receivable that cannot be collected because of either bankruptcy or another reason are termed as…………………. A. Collectible accounts B. Bad customers C. Doubtful accounts D. Bad debts SECTION B (40 MARKS) (Answer all the questions from this section. The Marks are indicated in Brackets) 21. Kefa Limited purchased a truck for Ksh. 5,400,000. Shipping costs amounted to Ksh. 240,000, branding the truck in company colors and logo costed Ksh. 120,000, a cost of Ksh. 10,000 for the truck cover and Ksh. 20,000 for a month’s fuel. What is the total amount of cost that should be capitalized? (4 marks) 22. State four causes of depreciation on fixed assets. (4marks) 23. Ken Traders sold an equipment for Ksh. 420,000 on 31 December 2021, which had been bought for Ksh. 1,600,000. At the time of disposal, the equipment had a book value of Ksh. 600,000. Prepare equipment disposal account. (4 marks) 24. Highlight four contents of a fixed assets register. (4 marks) 25. Outline four benefits of depreciating fixed assets in an organization. (4 marks) 26. State four disadvantages of perpetual stocktaking. (4 marks) 27. List four ways that companies may use an internal control system to protect their assets. (4 marks) 28. Komo Enterprises has made plans to purchase a new modern cash safe which is only available in a foreign country. Outline four challenges this company may face in executing this plan. (4 marks) 29. Kubbe Consultants was hired by a local wholesalers shop to assist in debts collection which had heavily accumulated. Upon further probing, Kubbe realized that the firm had no credit policy and decided to create one for the shop. Outline four key elements that they should include in the credit policy. (4 marks) 30. Highlight four benefits of undertaking proper assets management to a business enterprise. (4marks) SECTION C (40 MARKS) (This section has 3 questions, answer only two questions. Each question carries 20 marks). 31. a) Most companies are embracing the use of modern technology in their control systems. Explain five benefits of using such technology. (10 marks) b) Korir Enterprises incurred the following expenses during the year ended 31 December 2020 Determine: i) Total capital expenditure ii) Total revenue expenditure (10 marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE i. Time allocated: THREE (3) hours. ii. This paper has three sections A, B and C. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. iii. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. iv. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. v. Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of SEVEN (7) printed pages. SECTION A: (20 MARKS) In this section, each question carries one (1) mark. Attempt all questions in this section. Choose the correct answer and write it in the answer booklet provided. 1. Which among the following is a public relations activity? A. Renovation B. Media relations C. Product D. Strategy 2. What would an organization aim to achieve by carrying out a public relations activity? A. Strengthening relationships B. Develop business strategies C. Build reputation D. Increase customers 3. _______________ is a type of public relations activity A. Media relations B. Brand awareness C. Image D. Positioning 4. Which of the following is not a step in constructing stakeholders’ analysis A. Determine who your stakeholders are B. group and prioritize the stakeholders C. Figure out how to communicate with them D. strategize their products 5. What aspect of cultural difference may affect a project? A. Bidding B. Negotiations C. Placement D. Recording 6. Which among the following is a type of innovation partner? A. Investors B. Companies C. Universities D. All of the above 7. Which among the following is a criterion in selecting the best management tool A. Core values B. User interface C. Directions D. Usability 8. Which among the following is a publicity tool A. Reports B. Press releases C. Fact sheets D. Radio 9. Which of the following is an objective of public relations A. Support organization B. Build prospective C. Coerce employees D. Maintain a positive reputation of the brand 10. The following are types of corporate social responsibility, which among them is not? A. Environmental responsibility B. Ethical responsibility C. Financial responsibility D. All of the above 11. Which of the following is not an activity in public relations A. Media relations B. Media training C. Reporting D. Corporate communications 12. Which of the following is the FIRST step in a public relations programme A. Planning B. Implementation C. Research D. Evaluation 13. _____________ is a disadvantage of using a radio as a media in public relation campaign. A. Small audience B. Increases time in communication. C. Does not offer promotional messages D. Lack visual appeal 14. What reason would make an organization would prefer to a questionnaire to gather customer feedback. A. It is easy tom plan and execute B. It can be used by illiterate persons C. It allows the respondents to change their responses D. Allows for personal interactions 15. The following are elements of public corporate identity. Which one is the odd one out? A. Cooperate behaviour B. Corporate finance C. Corporate communication D. Corporate design 16. Identify from among the following a characteristic of a good budget. A. It is not practical to implement B. It is expressed in monetary terms C. It is prepared for a fixed period of time D. It is flexible. 17. The following are limitations of using a suggestion box as a feedback tool EXCEPT A. It may be an outlet for complaints B. It leads to rude comments C. It encourages shy employees D. It is not be an outlet for complaints 18. How would an organization achieve an Integrated Corporate Communication A. Use the same version of the logo ion each of its channels B. Use the same colour range in the graphic content C. Follow the same tone and style D. Varying the fonts or typology 19. _________________ is one of the internal publics of an organization A. Government B. Suppliers C. Creditors D. Employees 20. Below are sets of innovation. Identify the set which gives the best types of innovation. A. Product, Process and Technology B. Process, Technology and Promotion C. Process, Promotion and Production D. Process, Promotion and Pricing SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. 21. Define Stakeholder Analysis giving its purpose? (6mks) 22. State FOUR factors that may lead to ineffective stakeholder’s feedback (4mks) 23. List FIVE organizational factors that may affect a public relation officer in dealing with a team (5mks) 24. Identify FIVE items of information contained in a stakeholder’s profile. (5mks) 25. Outline FIVE responsibilities of an organization to its suppliers (5mks) 26. Define an innovation partner in relation to business management (2mks) 27. Describe three phases for creating a successful brand strategy (3mks) 28. List five publicity tools (5mks) 29. State five components of Public Relations (5mks) SECTION C: (40 MARKS) Attempt any TWO questions in this section. 30. a) Building strong relationships is important between organizations. Explain SIX ways that an organization may achieve this. (12mks) b) You have been invited to give a talk on innovation. Explain FOUR partners that an organization can incorporate in its innovation programme ( 8mks) 31. a) Explain FIVE factors that may lead to failure of a corporate social responsibility programme (10 marks) b) Discuss FIVE benefits of using universities as innovation partners (10 marks) 32. a) Describe the steps followed in carrying out public relation program (16 marks) b) Explain TWO factors that would make an organization prefer to use external public relations consultant in its programmes (4 marks)