August 7, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. This paper consists of FIVE (5) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A (10 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. Each question carries one (1) mark. 1. Who is the father of Computers? A. James Gosling B. Charles Babbage C. Dennis Ritchie D. Bjarne Stroustrup 2. Abbreviation CPU stands for……. A. Computer Processing Unit B. Computer Principle Unit C. Central Processing Unit D. Control Processing Unit 3. Which word processing feature detects spelling mistakes? A. Grammar checker B. Spell checker C. Word checker D. None of the these 4. How is the data stored on the hard disk? A. As ink B. As Laser bubbles C. Magnetically D. In Circuits 5. Which of the following programs enables you to do calculations? A. Window program B. Spreadsheet program C. Graphics program D. Word program 6. Which of the following is an output device? A. Keyboard B. Mouse C. Light pen D. VDU 7. Which of the following is an essential function of a word processing software? A. Indexing B. Addition C. Summation D. Formatting 8. Which of the following is a feature a word processing package uses to automatically insert names, addresses, and other text into designated locations in a series of letters? A. Mail merge B. Page layout C. Block move D. Word wrap 9. Which of the following is an example of hardware? A. Mouse B. Excel C. Presentation D. databases 10. Who among the following access information illegally? A. Database Administrator B. Software Engineer C. Hacker D. Programmer   SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer ANY TWO questions in this section 11. a. What is a Computer? (2 Marks) b. Define the following terms as used in computing (3 Marks) i. Data ii. Information iii. Processing c. Differentiate between the following (4 Marks) i. Hardware and software ii. Hardcopy and softcopy d. Name FOUR components that make up a computer system (2 Marks) e. List FOUR advantages of using computers. (4 Marks) f. State FIVE types of cyber threats (5 Marks) 12. a. State SIX offences as outlined in computer misuse and cyber-crime act if 2018. (6Marks) b. List TWO types of computer crimes. (2 Marks) c. Highlight FOUR methods protecting computer from threats (4 Marks) d. Discuss FOUR application areas of computer internet (8 Marks) 13. Jane is a secretary at a local dispensary. Her boss who has travelled abroad asks her to send the day’s report to him. She approaches you for advice on how to send the file though email. a) List FIVE benefits that Jane will enjoy by using an email to send the report. (5 Marks) b) State FIVE components that will enable Jane send her email. (5 Marks) c) List FIVE methods Jane can use to protect her computer while browsing the Internet (5 Marks) d) State FIVE differences between a word processor and a spread sheet. (5Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. SECTION A (10 MARKS) (Answer all the questions in this section) 1. State the number of cubic meters in 1000 litres of a liquid. (1 Mark) A. 1 cubic meter B. 10 cubic meters C. 0.1 cubic meters D. 1000 cubic meters 2. Identify the most suitable unit used when measuring the volume of water in a cup. (1 Mark) A. m3 B. grams C. ml D. kg 3. A customer wanted you to fabricate the following sheet metal in a workshop. Find the perimeter of the work piece. (1 Mark) 6. In an engineering drawing lesson, one of the student got the following measurement as 23.4 centimetre. State the margin of the error of the measurement. (1 Mark) A. The measurement must be between 22.45cm and 24.45cm B. The measurement must be between 23.35cm and 23.45cm C. The measurement must be 23.45cm D. The measurement must be between 23.44cm and 23.46cm 7. In a welding workshop 200 bushes are welded into a fixture. The instructions requires that the bushes should not have a defect rate of more than 2%. Find the percentage of defective pieces, if after recycling there are 3 defective pieces. (1 Mark) A. 3% B. 2% C. 5% D. 1.5% 8. Two points A and B are indicated on a map. Identify a choice which is related to distance between them. (1 Mark) A. Title of the map B. Compass C. Scale D. Axis 9. A steel support has four holes punched at equal distance from each other. Find the center -to- center distance between the holes. (1 Mark) A. 6cm B. 4cm C. 2cm D. 18cm 10. The bar graph below indicates the number of blocks made by group of students in a week. The number of blocks made on Wednesday are 5 less than those made on Friday. If they made 304 blocks in total. Find the number of blocks made on Friday. (1 Mark) A. 53 B. 48 C. 56 D. 54 SECTION B (40 MARKS) (Answer all the questions in this section) Additional Benefits are calculated at 10% for preparation 20% for installation and 15% for clean-up. In an eight-hour day an electrician spent 4 hours in preparation, 3 hours in installation and 1 hour in cleaning. Find the total labor costs of installation for 8-hours a day (4 Marks) 14. A lecturer’s evening schedule starts at 1545 Hours. There are 20 consecutive appointments of 10 minutes each and one break of 15 minutes. At what time is the lecturers’ evening due to end? Give your answer in 24-hour system. (3 Marks) 15. The table below shows the number of conduit pipes sold in a hardware over a duration of two weeks. a) Arrange the values for each week in ascending order (2 Marks) b) Compare the sales for the two weeks and state the week with the highest sales. (2 Marks) c) Find the difference between the mean sales for the two weeks. (4 Marks) 16. Two circles of radii 3cm and 2cm have their centres at A and B respectfully. The distance between their centres is 6cm. construct the circles. (4 Marks) 19. A roller is used to compact the ground before the cabros are laid in place. The diameter of the roller is 0.4m and is used on a path of length 20m. Find to the nearest whole number how many times the roller rotates when rolling on the length of the path once. Take the π on your calculator. (4 Marks)   20. A craftsman works 40 hours and earns kshs. 600 per hour for a week. The deductions are Income tax 18% Social security 7% Unions dues 5% NHIF 2.5% (a) Find the net pay for the 40 hours to the nearest whole number (2 Marks) (b) Represent the above information in a pie chart in percentage form (4 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. SECTION A (10 MARKS) Multiple Choice Questions Attempt ALL questions 1. Personal appearance is an element of A. Grooming B. Communication C. Status D. Non-verbal communication 2. The introduction, body and conclusion are parts of A. Communication skills B. Essays C. The body D. Programs 3. Visual communication includes the following elements A. Models and graphs B. Television and models C. Receiver and sender D. Emojis and medium 4. Difficult words and by-passed instructions are A. Physiological barriers B. Mechanical barriers C. Physical barriers D. Semantic barriers 5. Communication strengthens the following in an organization. A. Company B. Relationships C. Growth D. Managers 6. Letter, e-mail and memorandum are examples of A. Written communication B. Feedback C. Channels of communication D. Sender’s ideas 7. Information transmitted to the people of the same level in an organization is under A. Diagonal communication B. Deputy principal communication C. Horizontal communication D. Vertical communication 8. In letter writing, the principle of courtesy is important, which of the following is an example of a courtesy word? A. Help B. Polite C. Sorry D. Forgive 9. A customer who always returns to your organization is a A. Patient customer B. Satisfied customer C. Impatient customer D. Unsatisfied customer 10. Which of the following comes first in a letter of complaint? A. Salutations B. Complementary close C. Shortcomings in the supply of goods D. Signature   SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section 11. Name FOUR channels of communication used in an organization (4 Marks) 12. Define the TERM office protocol (2 Marks) 13. State THREE parts of written minutes (3 Marks) 14. A notice is an important document in the preparation of a meeting. List THREE contents of a notice (3 Marks) 15. Explain THREE advantages of the use of visuals in speech presentation (3 Marks) 16. Explain THREE reasons why feedback is important in communication (3 Marks) 17. Explain THREE benefits of external communication in an organization (3 Marks) 18. Identify any TWO factors that make oral communication effective (2 Marks) 19. Highlight TWO ways the management of an organization may minimize grapevine communication (2 Marks) 20. Explain any THREE strategies that may make a meeting more successful (3 Marks) 21. List TWO ways used in writing an effective summary (2 Marks) 22. Explain any TWO routes of communication in an organization (4 Marks) 23. List TWO qualities of a good report (2 Marks) 24. Identify any FOUR important preparations that an interviewee should observe (4 marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE Time allocated: THREE (3) Hours. This paper has two sections A and B. Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. Do not write on the question paper. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (40 MARKS) Attempt ALL questions in this section 1. New markets are identified and tracked according to PESTLE. Define PESTLE analysis as used in business management. (2 Marks) 2. Explain FOUR elements of a business development plan used by social media managers to guide in creating internet based messages. (4 Marks) 3. Outline the steps that a business manager can follow to establish operational gaps in a business. (4 Marks) 4. State FOUR factors to consider when evaluating a viable business opportunity. (4 Marks) 5. List FOUR reasons why a new business may fail. (4 Marks) 6. List FOUR items that a manager can use to monitor a business sales turnover. (4 Marks) 7. Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) has become a common feature in assisting management of organizations realize the set goals. Define SOP. (2 Marks) 8. State FOUR types of business decisions that are made using standards operating procedures. (4 Marks) 9. Identify FOUR business turnover indicators. (4 marks) 10. State FOUR roles of customer relations manager. (4 Marks) 11. List FOUR benefits that may accrue to an organization that practices good relations. (4 Marks) SECTION B: (60 MARKS) INSTRUCTIONS; Answer Question TWELVE and ANY other TWO questions in this section. 12. Read through the case study below and answer the questions that follow. El Classico is a hotel operating in a less busy part of Kilifi County. The owner, Mr. Kanze, firmly believes that there is a need for this style of low-cost family accommodation amid the luxury and beauty of the area. His rooms are large, family-style rooms, without television. Although there is plenty of room for future expansion, the grounds are fairly bear with a bit of landscaping, but mostly grass. Mr. Kanze serves breakfast in the rooms and providestea-making facilities. There are a lot of good restaurants and take-away outlets in the area. Mr. Kanze’s prices are less than half of what similar hotels charge and only a fraction of what the big five-star hotels charge. Moreover, he isn’t all that far away from the beach, shops and other attractions. The problem is occupancy. He has some regular customers who come every holiday period (and have been doing so for the four years he has owned the hotel). Overall, occupancy is about 50% year round and he knows from the local tourist office that the other hotels average around 68% occupancy all year round. New developments could mean trouble. This lack of occupancy can be quite frustrating for Mr. Kanze. Currently, Mr. Kanze does very little advertising in local television stations and newspapers, mainly because he really thinks word-of-mouth is the best form of advertising. He is a member of the local tourist committee, but too busy to attend meetings. However, he does receive the local statistics and knows the average stay in the area is 3.8 nights, and that local families, couples and increasingly overseas visitors are his potential customers. He’s not desperate yet, but he’s getting worried and disillusioned. a) Use of SWOT analysis is becoming a common practice in most businesses. What does SWOT stand for in full. (2 Marks) b) Mr. Kanze has hired you as a business manager to help him improve his hotel business. Conduct a SWOT analysis of El Classico Hotel. (8 Marks) c) From the SWOT analysis in (b) above, advise Mr. Kanze on the immediate short term solutions to improve the business. (2 marks) d) Explain FOUR reasons why a business manager at El Classico hotel, should use SWOT analysis. (8 Marks) 13. For a business to operate, activities need to be divided into several functional areas a) Define the term functional area as used in a business set up. (2 Marks) b) One of the functional area of a business is Human Resource Department. Explain FOUR functions of this department. (8 Marks) c) Describe the steps that should be followed in developing a business policy and procedure. (10 Marks) 14. Market surveys are essential to the success of every business; whether new or existing. a) Define the term Market Survey. (2 Marks) b) Explain FOUR reasons why one should conduct a market survey for their business. (8 Marks) c) Describe FIVE market survey tools that a business should use when gathering information from customers. (10 Marks) 15. Mzuri Leatherworks Company is a local footwear manufacturer. The management intends to take its staff on a benchmarking tour. a) Describe FIVE steps to be followed in the benchmarking process. (10 marks) b) Explain FIVE areas that will be the basis of benchmarking. (10 marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE You have 3 hours to answer all the questions. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. Do not write on the question paper Marks for each question are indicated. SECTION A: (40 MARKS) Answer all Questions in this Section 1. State FOUR types of hazardous materials that may pose a risk to an organization. (4 Marks) 2. Outline the steps followed when making a risk assessment matrix in an organization. (4 Marks) 3. Outline FOUR advantages of recruiting employees internally. (4 Marks) 4. Highlight FOUR challenges that a risk management team may encounter when carrying out operations in an organization. (4 Marks) 5. Highlight FOUR strategies that a risk manager may use to ensure successful risk mitigation in an organization. (4 Marks) 6. State FOUR types of risk reporting that a Project Manager may use in a business in a business organization. (4 Marks). 7. State FOUR reasons why risk management is important to a business organization. (4 Marks) 8. Highlight FOUR factors that a risk manager may consider when reviewing a risk-training framework in an organization. (4 Marks) 9. List FOUR advantages of risk forecasting to an organization. (4 Marks) 10. Highlight FOUR components of a risk management. (4 Marks)   SECTION B (60 marks) Question 11 is Compulsory and Answer ANY other TWO Questions. 11. Case Study Read the case study below and answer the questions that follow. Gloria from ABC Company ltd works in the model development team and is responsible for overseeing the development of all the life business valuation models. ABC ltd is on a continual model development cycle and implements changes every quarter. Gloria’s team has implemented 10 model enhancement changes into a sandbox model that remove simplifications and fix errors. It’s already mid-November and this model needs to be used for year-end reporting in December. Management has been requesting these changes be implemented in the model for several quarters and Gloria does not want to let them down. Gloria and her team quantified the aggregate impact which showed a 2million reserve decrease. Company ABC’s policy allows model owners to decide if a model change requires independent MRM review if it has less than 5million financial impact. Due to time constraints, Gloria elects to bypass MRM review and promotes the model to production for year-end reporting. Long and behold, in February, auditors finds that two of the changes were not appropriately implemented, but they had large offsetting impacts that were not clear in the aggregate impact analysis. a) From the case study, explain FIVE ways in which Gloria and her team, model risk management (MRM) program would mitigate the possibility of this scenario from reoccurring. (10 Marks) b) Explain five possible consequences that ABC LTD would suffer for not being proactive in risk management (10 marks). 12. a) Explain FIVE techniques that a Project Manager may use to identify risk in an organization. (10 Marks). b) Describe the steps followed in risk management in an organization. (10 Marks). 13. a) Explain SIX benefits of Risk Assessment Matrix in a business organization. (12 Marks). b) Explain FOUR factors that may hinder the risk management process in an organization. (8 Marks). 14 (a) Explain FIVE responsibilities of a risk manager in an organization. (10 Marks). (b) Explain FIVE ways of managing construction related risks. (10 Marks

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE i. Time allocated: THREE Hours. ii. This paper has two sections A and B. iii. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. iv. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. v. Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of FIVE (5) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.   SECTION A: (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section 1. Define the term corporate governance. (2marks) 2. State the relationship between a budget and a strategic plan (3marks) 3. There are key concepts underpinning good corporate governance in an organization. Highlight four core concepts of corporate governance. (4marks) 4. Otieno’s Copy Shop bought equipment for Shs 240,000 on January 1, 2018. Otieno estimated the useful life to be 3 years with no salvage value, and the straight-line method of depreciation will be used. On January 1, 2019, Otieno decides that the business will use the equipment for a total of 5 years. What is the revised depreciation expense for 2019? (4marks) 5. Financial statements are prepared at the end of each financial year. Highlight four users of these financial statements (4marks) 6. Many investors consider the cash flow statement as the most important indicator of a company’s financial performance. State three components of the cash flow statement (3marks) 7. Companies are entities created by the law and are required to be managed by a board of directors. Highlight four circumstances that could lead to the disqualification of a director. (4marks) 8. There are firms which besides offering ordinary shares still float preference shares. State four disadvantages of preference shares. (4marks) 9. Highlight the relationship between risk management and corporate governance (2marks) 10. Control procedures are enforced to ensure efficient conduct of the company’s business. List four control guidelines commonly used in organisations. (4marks) 11. Budgets are financial plans and very useful in an organisation. Outline three objectives that budgets aim to achieve (3marks) 12. A recent survey has indicated that most firms use payback period in their capital investment decisions. State three advantages of using this method. (3marks) 13. Companies can access finance from different sources to fund their operations. Name four sources of finance. (4marks) 14. Explain one reason why when calculating the quick ratio, stock is removed from the current assets. (2marks) 15. List three factors that one should consider when selecting capital investments for a businessm (3marks)   SECTION B: (60 MARKS) Answer any THREE questions in this section. 16. Shepetu Ltd are manufacturers of canned foods. In the year 2010 they floated their shares at the Nairobi Security exchange. The public welcomed the idea overwhelmingly and Shepetu Ltd ended up with an oversubscription in their shares. Atieno had subscribed for 5,000 shares and was only assigned 2,500 shares; she later got a refund of her money. In the year 2018 the company embarked on a serious campaign of buying back the shares and to-date Shepetu has managed to buy back 40% of the shares they had initially subscribed. i) What benefits is Atieno likely to derive from buying these shares. (4marks) ii) Why did the company repurchase the ordinary shares? (6marks) iii) Why were Shepetu’s shares oversubscribed (6marks) iv) Highlight four disadvantages of ordinary shares (4marks) 17. a) The following is a table showing the budgeted figures and the actual figures for sales revenue and the cost. Calculate the variance and indicate whether it’s favorable (F) or unfavorable(U) (4marks) b) Name four causes of material variance (4marks) c) State the four reasons for overheads variance (4marks) d) Explain the various types of budgets that a business entity can prepare (8marks) 18. The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Apex Traders as at 30th June 2015 Additional information Stock of goods on 30th June 2015 was worth shs 22,000 Required. i) Prepare the trading profit and loss account (12marks) ii) Prepare a balance as at that date. (8marks) 19.a) The following information relates to Morale Retailers for the month of July 2015: Sales – Ksh 50,000 Cost of sales – Ksh 40.000 Average stock – Ksh 20,000 Expenses were – 5% of sales Calculate: i. Mark-up (2marks) ii. Margin (2 marks) iii. Total expenses (2 marks) iv. Net profit (2 marks) v. Rate of stock turnover (2marks) b) Highlight the importance of financial ratios. (5 marks) c) List five factors affecting working capital (5marks)

Instructions: i. You are allocated Three (3) hours. ii. This assessment has two sections (A and B). Attempt questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. iii. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. iv. Do not write on the question paper v. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets [ ] SECTION A: (40 MARKS) Attempt ALL questions in this section 1. Explain the term ‘business strategy’ [4 marks] 2. Distinguish between the following terms: i) Policy and procedure. [2 marks] ii) Goals and objectives. [2 marks] 3. State THREE items that should be included in variance analysis in a business set up. [3 marks] 4. Outline FOUR benefits of monitoring and evaluation in an organization. [4 marks] 5. State FOUR reasons why an organization scans its business environment. [4 marks] 6. Outline THREE functions of balanced scorecard in evaluating business operations. [3 marks] 7. State FOUR types of plans used in business strategy. [4 marks] 8. Identify any FOUR functions of the procurement function in an organization. [4 marks] 9. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) provides clear-cut directions and instructions as to how employees within an organization must go about completing certain processes. State THREE types of SOPs. [3 marks] 10. List FOUR steps followed when identifying operational gaps in business operations.[4 marks] 11. Identify THREE types of policies that guide operations in an organization. [3 marks]   SECTION B: (60 MARKS) In this section, you are required to answer THREE (3) questions; question ELEVEN (11) is compulsory and any other TWO (2) questions in the answer booklet provided. 12. Farmers in Jillo sub-county realized that selling their potatoes to brokers individually was giving them very low returns compared to the expenses they were incurring buying seeds, fertilizers, planting, weeding, among others. In their annual general meeting, they resolved to come up with a company that could make crisps using their potatoes and sell the final product  directly to consumers, hence eliminating middle men. As an expert, advise them on: a) The need for a strategic plan [8 marks] b) The steps to follow to develop the strategic plan. [12 marks] 13. Activities needed to operate a business need to be divided into several functional areas. a) Explain the term ‘functional area’ as used in an organization. [2 marks] b) Explain the importance of different functional areas to an organization. [8 marks] c) Describe the steps that should be followed in developing a business policy. [10 marks] 14. Kamongo Technical Institute is a leading participant in technical training in the country. The management has requested you to undertake a SWOT analysis for the institute. a) Illustrate the SWOT analysis tool. [10 marks] b) Explain FIVE limitations of SWOT analysis tool. [10 marks] 15. Corrective action plans can help improve business operations and address work-related issues. a) Define the term Corrective Action Plan (CAP)? [2 marks] b) Explain the importance of CAP in a business. [8 marks] c) Describe FIVE steps undertaken to come with a CAP. [10 marks

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES i. This assessment contains THREE(3) sections; A,B and C ii. Attempt all Questions in Section A,B and Three(3)in Section C as instructed iii. You are given Three (3) hour to answer all the questions iv. You are provided with a separate answer booklet to write your answers v. Write your name and registration code on the answer booklet vi. Do not write on the question paper vii. Marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). viii. Answer all questions in English This paper consists of SIX (6) printed pages. SECTION A: (20 MARKS) (Attempt ALL Questions in this section) 1. A measurable characteristics of a population is research is called__________. A. Scale. B. Hypothesis. C. Type. D. Variable 2. Which of the following is the most important aspect in research A. Developing a research design B. Formulating a research question C. Deciding about the data analysis procedure D. Writing recommendations 3. Doing research requires drafting working outline, which is A. Having a predefined and clear-cut objectives B. Planning to get answers for what ,why and what type of questions C. Having a clear idea about the research problem solutions D. None of the above 4. How do researchers judge research depth A. By research title B. By research duration C. By research objectives D. By total expenditure on research 5. Which of the following is a research method A. observation B. Questionnaires C. Survey D. Focus groups 6. Which of the following statement best define research A. Searching again and again B. Finding solution C. Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem D. Writing report 7. A Question in which several alternatives are provided is called_____________________ A. Choice questions B. Closed ended question C. Open ended questions D. Structured questions 8. Which of the following are core elements of a research process A. Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and Recommendations B. Executive Summary; Literature Review; Data Gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography C. Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References D. Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results; Discussions and Conclusions 9. The second step in research problem formulation is_____________________ A. Statement of the problem B. Understanding the nature of the problem C. Survey D. Discussions 10. Which of the following term best defines the person who fills a questionnaire A. Respondent B. Everybody C. Enumerator D. Researcher 11. Which of the following is true regarding research objectives? A. Research objectives, when achieved, will provide sufficient earnings to obtain a reasonable return on investment. B. Research objectives, when obtained, will ensure the viability of the marketing research department. C. Research objectives, when achieved, provide the information necessary to solve the problem. D. Research objectives are seldom achieved but should be stated as goals to be sought. 12. Existing organization information is an example of which type of data A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Non required data 13. Which sampling technique is best for heterogeneous population A. stratified Sampling Technique B. Purposive Sampling Technique C. Area Sampling Technique D. systematic sampling technique 14. A complete list of all the sampling units is called___________________________ A. Sampling design B. Sampling frame C. Population frame D. Cluster 15. SPSS is an acronym for? A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences. B. Sexual Preferences for the Sixties and Seventies. C. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences. D. Sexual Performance and SAD Syndrome. 16. The first stage in the research process is____________________________ A. Problem formulation B. Data collection C. Data Analysis D. Report Writing 17. Which is the last page of the research report A. Appendix B. Bibliography C. Index D. Title Page 18. What type of chart is useful for showing trends or changes over time A. Pie Chart B. Column Chart C. Line Chart D. Dot Graph 19. The main reason for doing research is____________________________ A. Study and explore knowledge B. Start with a predetermined and clear objectives C. Get new knowledge D. None of the above 20. Which of the following statement best defines assurance of research reliability A. There is deliberate attempt to conceal information B. Quantitative and Qualitative methods are used C. Repeatability and accuracy are provided for the quality of measurement procedures used D. The solution to the research problem are known well in advance SECTION B: (40 MARKS) (Attempt all the questions in this section) 21. Expound on three methods of identifying research problem in business research (6 marks) 22. Define target population as used in business research (2 marks) 23. Enumerate four types of research hypothesis in business research (4 marks) 24. Outline the process of writing a research schedule in business research (3 marks) 25. Differentiate between a survey and a questionnaire (2 marks) 26. Explain three importance of carrying out reconnaissance in business research (6 marks) 27. Highlight four principles of good report writing in business research (4 marks) 28. Name five guidelines in presenting recommendations in a business report (5 marks) 29. Outline four key steps followed in research data analysis (4 marks) 30. Describe three major drivers of research in business management (6 marks) SECTION C: (40 MARKS) (Attempt any Two (2) questions in this section) 31. ABC Ltd is experiencing serious issues with its old manual pay rolling. However, its top management the problem of not properly addressing the challenges that come with implementation of payroll management systems. In light of this, it has narrowed down the following factors as concerns in its implementation; employee training, funding, organization structure, support by the government, ICT infrastructure, organization culture and top management support. Required: a) Develop five possible research hypothesis suitable for researching the above casem(10 marks) b) Examine five research tools, materials and equipment applicable in the above case (10 marks) 32. A firm manager wishes to understand reasons behind revenue decline in his/her business a) Describe five research methods that a business manager can use to carry out business research (10 marks) b) Prepare a practical research budget a business manager can make highlighting key aspects