August 8, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. This paper consists of SEVEN (7) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A (20 MARKS) Attempt ALL questions in this section. Each Question has one (1) Mark 1.Which of the following is an operating system? A. Windows B. Avast C. Microsoft D. Microsoft windows 2.Which of the following is a computer hardware device? A. Malware B. Microsoft word C. Network D. Monitor 3.Which of the following is a temporary storage medium? A. Flash disc B. Hard disc C. RAM D. CD RW 4. Which computer device is used to produce softcopy output? A. Scanner B. Camera C. Monitor D. Plotter 5. Which of the following runs computer programs? A. Word processing B. Presentation C. Database Management D. Operating system 6. Which of the following is a computer input device? A. Mouse B. Operating system C. Monitor D. RAM 7. Which of the following is a legal method of acquiring software in an organization? A. piracy B. spoofing C. Tailor making D. Cracking 8. Which of the following is an application program used to make documents such as letters, memos and minutes in an office? A. Microsoft excel B. Microsoft power point C. Microsoft word D. My SQL 9. Which of the following terms refer to elimination of programs and its associated files from a computer hard drive? A. Deleting B. Uninstalling C. Scanning D. Restarting 10. Which technology was used by computers in the first generation? A. Vacuum tubes B. IC C. VLSI D. Transistors 11. Which of the following devices is used to convert soft copy to hard copy in computing? A. Scanner B. Camera C. Printer D. Speakers 12. Which of the following is a data security threat? A. Privacy protection B. Malware attack. C. Properly saving files. D. Scanning external drives. 13. Which one of the following is an attribute of computer classification? A. Physical size B. software C. company D. hardware 14. What is the process of removing unwanted part of an image? A. Hiding B. Bordering C. Cropping D. Cutting 15. Which of the following is a legal method of acquiring a software? A. piracy B. spoofing C. Tailor making D. Cracking 16. What does the term email in full? A. Everyday mail B. Exciting mail C. Electronic mail D. Electric mail 17. What is the name of the space left between the margin and the start of a paragraph? A. Spacing B. Gutter C. Indentation D. Alignment 18. What term refers to the intersection of rows and columns in a spreadsheet file? A. Cells B. Worksheets C. Spreadsheets D. None of these. 19. Which program should be installed to protect a computer from malicious attack? A. backup wizard B. disk clean-up C. antivirus D. disk defragmenter 20. Which of the following practices may lead to spread of computer virus? A. Sharing infected secondary storage devices B. Installing antivirus software C. Downloading programs from the internet D. Sharing a monitor with a colleague. SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer all the questions in this section on the answer booklet provided. 21. State TWO functions of information communication technology in an organization (2Marks) 22. List TWO examples of optical computer storage media (2Marks) 23. Describe computer input, output and storage devices giving an example in each case. (6Marks) 24. What is the meaning of the following terms as used in computer security? i. cyber bullying (2Marks) ii. cracking (2Marks) 25. State FOUR factors you would consider when purchasing a software (4Marks) 26. Draw a labelled diagram of a star network topology (4Marks) 27. List FOUR networking devices used to create networks in organizations. (4Marks) 28. Differentiate between a worksheet and workbook as used in MS spreadsheets (4 Marks) 29. Distinguish between database and data bank. (2Marks) 30. You have been asked to save a word document on your computer. List the steps you would follow in accomplishing the task. (4Marks) 31. Distinguish between Sorting and Searching as used with computer files. (4Marks) SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer two of the two questions in this section. 32. John has been appointed as the head of the newly created Information Communications Department of ABC limited. He is contemplating on setting up a computer network infrastructure to coordinate the activities between departments within the company. a) Define the term computer network. (2 marks) b) List six devices that John will require to setup the computer network (6 marks) c) State six benefits that ABC will enjoy after the installation of the computer network (6 marks) d) List six challenges the company may experience after the installation of the computer network (6 marks) 33. Jane is in the process of acquiring computer hardware for her newly established firm. She has approached you as an ICT expert to guide her in the computer hardware acquisition process. a) Define the term computer hardware (2marks) b) List two categories of computer hardware that Jane is likely to buy (2 marks) c) State six factors to consider when selecting the computer hardware (6 marks) d) Highlight six measures that you would advise Jane to follow to ensure computer hardware security (6 marks) e) Jane has tasked you to assemble the computer hardware after purchase. List four computer hardware devices you are likely to come across. (4 marks) 34. Computer technology has become an integral part of our daily lives. This has resulted to different challenges from the use of the technology. a) Discuss the challenge of this technology in the following areas i. Health (5 marks) ii. Security (5 marks) b) Despite the inroads made in the field of computing technology, some people are yet to enjoy these benefits. i. List five causes that make people

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). This paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. SECTION A (20 MARKS) Answer all the questions. 1. Which one of the following is not a type of number used in mathematics? (1 Mark) A. Natural numbers B. Integers C. Numerator numbers D. Real numbers 2. Identify from the choices given, the true statement about collection of data. (1Mark) A. The data that is collected from the place of origin is known as primary data B. The data that is collected from the place of origin is known as secondary data C. The data that is collected from the place of origin is known as tertiary data D. None of the above 3. In the figure below, find the value of angle 𝛼. (1Mark) 4. Evaluate 0.003 – 0.0018 – 0.01 + 0.42. (1 Mark) A. 0.4112 B. 0.4222 C. 0.4312 D. 0.4348 5. Evaluate 24 ÷ 3 + 4 − 6 × 5. (1 Mark) A. 30 B. -18 C. -2 D. 6 7. A farmer buys animal feeds in sacks of 80kg, 60kg, and 40kg. Find the largest quantity of feed that can be packed out of these sacks without any feed being left over. (1 Mark) A. 40 B. 15 C. 20 D. 450 8. An arc of length 4.4m subtends an angle of 72 degrees at the Centre of a circle. Calculate the radius of the circle in cm. (1 Mark) A. 35cm B. 3.5cm C. 0.35cm D. 350cm 9. Find the median of the following data: 12,8,21,12,4,11,18,13,20,19,21 and 11. (1 Mark) A. 12 B. 13 C. 12.5 D. 15.5 10. Find the surface area of a closed cube of sides 7cm. (1 Mark) A. 343 cm2 B. 49 cm2 C. 28 cm2 D. 294 cm2 11. Find the gradient of a straight line whose equation is 3𝑦 − 𝑥 = 6 (1 Mark) A. – 1 B. 1/3 C. −1/3 D. 3 12. Three bells ring at regular intervals of 15, 30 and 45 minutes. On a certain day, they rang simultaneously at 0700 hours. Determine the next time that they all rang together. (1 Mark) A. 0715 hours B. 0930 hours C. 0830 hours D. 0915 hours 13. Determine the ratio 𝑥: 𝑦 given that 2𝑥 − 5𝑦 = 0 (1 Mark) A. 5:2 B. 2:5 C. 3:5 D. 7:2 14. Find longitude difference between two towns which are (300 N, 700 W) and ((300 N ,300 E ) (1 Mark) A. 400 B. 1000 C. -400 D. -1000 15. A ladder reaches the top of a wall of height 6m when the other end is 2.5m on the ground from the wall. Determine the length of the ladder. (1 Mark) A. 6.5m B. 6.05m C. 65m D. 0.65m 16. Find the area of a regular pentagon of sides 10 cm correct to 2 decimal places. (1 Mark) 19. Calculate the total amount on Kshs. 6250 invested in a financial institutions for a period of 4 years at 12% per annum simple interest. (1 Mark) A. 7500 B. 7000 C. 9250 D. 3000 20. Onyango, Juma and Cheptoo shared Kshs. 90,000 in the ratio 2:3:4 respectively. Determine how much more Cheptoo than Onyango. (1 Mark) A. 20000 B. 10000 C. 40000 D. 30000 28. A spherical container has a diameter of 270 mm.Find its volume in cm3 correct to 2 decimal places. (4 Marks) 29. The following number 1295 is divided by a certain whole number, the quotient is 76 and the remainder is 3. Find the number (4 Marks) 30. If 5 men can erect 2 cottages in 21 day, how many more men, working at the same rate, will be needed to construct 6 cottages in the same period? (4 Marks) SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer any TWO questions. 31. Using a ruler and a pair of compass only: a) Construct a triangle ABC with sides AB= 5cm, AB=5cm and angle BAC= 600. (5 Marks) b) Construct a circle passing through points ABC and find the area of the circle. (5 Marks) c) Measure the size of angle 𝐴𝐵𝐶 . Hence calculate the value of angle 𝐴𝐶𝐵. (5 Marks) d) Find the area of triangle ABC to the nearest 𝑐𝑚2. (5 Marks) 32. The table below shows lengths of conduits in metres selected from a workshop.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B and C Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. SECTION A: (20 MARKS) Answer all the questions in this section. Each question carries one (1) mark 1. What quality of oral communication would make you prefer it over written communication? A. It has legal validity B. Conveying feelings and emotions C. It helps one recall facts D. Providing opportunity to refer back 2. Identify the behavior that is part of active listening among the following A. Fidgeting B. Scrolling through the phone C. Maintaining eye contact D. Reading a newspaper 3. Using a memo to communicate at the workplace falls under one of the following A. Grapevine B. Diagonal C. Vertical D. Intrapersonal 4. One of the following describes the mental processing of a received message A. Decoding B. Encoding C. Communication D. Feedback 5. Which one of the following shows a positive facial expression? A. Frowning B. Taking notes C. Smiling D. Blinking consistently 6. Communication in which lower level workers discuss amongst themselves about upcoming retrenchment is A. Grapevine B. Formal C. Vertical D. Upward 7. The technical language used by professionals and peers is called A. Formal B. Grapevine C. Jargon D. Conscious 8. All of the following are factors to consider before making a call except? A. Choosing the right time B. Verifying the receiver’s number C. Gathering needed information D. Knowing the location of the recipient 9. Which of the following is a factor to consider before making a speech? A. Researching on topic B. The audience information overload C. Cost of attire worn D. The audience residence 10. Which term below refers to circumstances where one is not aware of what they are communicating? A. Formal B. Unconscious C. Grapevine D. Unfamiliar 11. What must you give to the audience first during oral presentation? A. Flashback B. Front view C. Forward view D. Background 12. Which one of the following is not an element of the communication cycle? A. Channel B. Receiver C. Time D. Sender 13. Communication is a continuous A. Programme B. Process C. Plan D. Information 14. What communication barrier occurs when one uses abbreviations in disseminating information? A. Organizational B. Physical C. Linguistic D. Cultural 15. Identify one principle of effective communication from the following. A. Sophistication B. Consciousness C. Consideration D. Completion 16. As a manager, you will encounter one of the following forms of communication A. Formal B. Non-verbal C. Interpersonal D. Audience 17. Identify one example of non-verbal communication. A. Meditation B. Reflection C. Gestures D. Contemplation 18. Which of the following is a form of written communication A. Notices B. Maps C. Models D. Handwriting 19. In a meeting, the chairperson will perform one of the following A. Progress chaser B. Appointing speakers C. Taking notes D. Participating in debates 20. Which of the following is a type of interview? A. Exit interviews B. Classroom interviews C. Personal interviews D. Conflict interviews   SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section 21. Define the following terms as used in communication a) Transmitter (2 Marks) b) Etiquette (2 Marks) c) Diplomacy (2 Marks) 22. Highlight FOUR ways of dealing with communication barriers. (4 Marks) 23. Highlight FOUR roles of the secretary during a meeting (4Marks) 24. State FOUR examples of written communication used in vertical communication (4 Marks) 25. Outline FOUR disadvantages of audio-visual communication (4 Marks) 26. Highlight any THREE causes of unsuccessful meetings in an organization. (3 Marks) 27. State any FOUR limitations of downward communication (4 Marks) 28. List any FIVE ways of filing documents (5 Marks) 29. Highlight any THREE forms of Mass Media in Kenya. (3 Marks) 30. List any THREE ways in which Public Relations can boost sales in your organization. (3 Marks)   SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer any TWO questions from this section 31. The onset of Covid-19 affected various sections of the economy. Education was not an exceptional in the experience of these effects. a) Write an essay on the topic: “The effects of Covid-19 to education in Kenya” (12 Marks) b) Explain FOUR characteristics of a good notice. (8 Marks) 32. The Scouting club of your institution is holding the fourth meeting this year as they organize for a trip to the Aberdare mountains. As the secretary of the meeting a) Prepare the agenda for the meeting. (6 Marks) b) Write minutes of the meeting. (14 Marks) 33. The long winding words in the writing of messages have been reduced to the use of Emojis. This has indeed transformed technology. a) Discuss FIVE impacts of technology in communication. (10 Marks) b) Discuss any FIVE negative effects of social media on communication (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. SECTION A: (10 MARKS) Attempt all questions, each question carries one mark (1). 1. Under the OSH Act, employers are responsible for providing a __________ A. Safe workplace B. Land C. Insurance D. Estimation 2. An employee who spots a risk in the workplace should? A. Ignore the risk B. Report it to the health and safety officer C. Report it to a supervisor D. Mitigate the risk 3. There are several factors that are often used to determine when an organization should have the services of a full time Safety Professional. Which of the following is generally acknowledged to be the prime-determining factor in assigning safety personnel? A. The incident rate of organization B. The seriousness of incidents suffered by the organization C. The potential for serious injuries in the organization D. The type of industry the organization is involved in 4. What must you do when tidying up in the workshop? A. Hang up the aprons correctly on the stand B. Put the tools away in their places on the shadow board C. Sweep up the dust on the floor D. Investigate the activities going on the workshop 5. Why do you need to wear ear protection when using noisy machines? A. Listen to music when working with machines B. Not to listen to the teacher C. To protect ear drum from noise produced by machines. D. For enjoyment 6. As a student, which is the correct action to take if you have an accident in the workshop. A. Report all injuries when they occur no matter how minor. B. Hide all evidence that can be used against you. C. Do not do any first aid on an injured person. D. Avoid recording injuries in the workshop. 7. Housekeeping requirements for safe workplace include all of the following EXCEPT A. Keeping site reasonably dry and clear of debris B. Providing containers for the collection and separation of waste C. Removing combustible waste at regular intervals D. Storing all flammable wastes in a container with open top 8. From the following options, what is the best way to control hazards in the workplace? A. Replace the hazard for a less risky option B. Eliminate the hazard completely from the workplace C. Use personal protective equipment (PPE) D. Have rules to help people avoid hurting themselves 9. What should not be included in a workplace OSH training? A. Nutrition for workers B. Use of fire extinguishers C. Emergency response training D. Basic First-Aid training 10. In using a fire extinguisher, PASS stands for? A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep B. Plunge, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep C. Pull, Aim, Shoot, Stay D. Plunge, Address, Shoot, Sweep SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Attempt all questions in this section. 11. State four importance of working in clean and safe and environment [4 Marks] 12. Identify relevant laws used in occupational safety [4 Marks] 13. Define the following terms as used in OSH [4 Marks] a) Hazard b) Incident 14. Identify methods of gathering OSH issues raised by workers [4 Marks] 15. Select four OSH related records [4 Marks] 16. State four types of OSH training in a workplace [4 Marks] 17. Identify four importance of using PPEs in a work place [4 Marks] 18. State four hazards’ indicators [4 Marks] 19. List contingency measures used in OSH [4 Marks] 20. List four importance of First aid in OSH [4 Marks

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. SECTION A (10 MARKS) (Answer ALL questions, each question is 1 Mark) 1. Select the plan used in handling waste at workplace A. Integrated Waste Management Plan B. Waste development plan C. Environmental management plan D. Urban plan 2. Select the physical parameter of water quality A. Turbidity B. Amount of phosphates C. Amount of biological oxygen demand D. Amount of nitrogen 3. Identify the disadvantage of renewable energy A. High pollution B. Available only in few places C. High running cost D. Unreliable supply 4. Identify the major cause of deforestation A. Industrial development B. Afforestation C. Reforestation D. Biodiversity conservation 5. Waste can be classified as hazardous if _____________ A. Waste will not cause any mortality B. Waste increases mortality C. Wastes decrease mortality D. Waste decomposes itself without any aid 6. Choose the first level of practice in integrated waste management A. Prevention B. Source reduction C. Disposal D. Recycling 7. Select the main reason for ozone layer depletion A. Emission of oxygen B. Burning of litter C. Emission of chlorofluorocarbons D. Emission of nitrogen 8. State the type of pollution that is not classified as a noise pollution A. Kitchen noise B. Industrial noise C. Transport noise D. Neighborhood noise 9. Select the largest contributors to global pollution A. Soil pollution B. Industrial pollution C. Radioactive pollution D. Water pollution 10. Identify the characteristic of acid rain A. Withstanding B. Protecting C. Corrosive D. Balancing SECTION B (40 MARKS) (Answer all questions in this section) 11. Identify FOUR reasons for monitoring environmental resources (4 Marks) 12. List FOUR benefits of green purchasing practices (4Marks) 13. List FIVE types of personal protective equipment used in an industrial workplace (5Marks) 14. List FOUR methods used for the disposal of hazardous waste (4 Marks) 15. Outline the FIVE steps of waste management hierarchy (5 Marks) 16. Give FIVE common causes of air pollution in the environment (5 Marks) 17. Explain TWO methods that can be used in the conservation of resources (4 Marks) 18. Differentiate between Recycling and Reusing components of sustainable resource use (4 Marks) 19. State FIVE ways that an organization can use to improve resource efficiency (5 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE i. Time allocated: TWO (2) hours. ii. This paper has TWO sections A and B. Answer questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. iii. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. iv. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. v. Do not write on the question paper SECTION A: (10 MARKS) In this section, each question carries one (1) mark. Answer all questions in this section. Choose the correct answer and write it in the answer booklet provided. 1. Which one of the following is a limitation of technological advancement at workplace? A. Health complication. B. Better communication. C. Increased productivity. D. Effective retrieval of records. 2. Identify a factor from the list below that can lead to low self-esteem of employees? A. Feeling of competence. B. Arriving home early. C. Future expectations. D. Unrealistic goals. 3. State the method that can be used to identify a person’s weakness? A. By taking time to think about what you do well B. By thinking of anything that you are always good at C. By thinking about what others appreciate about you D. By looking at the feedback you receive from others 4. Which one of the following is a strategy of reducing stress at work place? A. Having an open conversation with your supervisor. B. Reporting at work late C. Asking for permission to be absent according to organization policy D. Missing work when you are sick 5. The following are ways of integrating personal objectives with organization goals, except? A. Always answering all questions asked by supervisor B. Getting a clear understanding of organizational goals C. Being more flexible D. Saying yes to please your manager 6. Choose a characteristic of an assertive employee from the list below? A. Attaining instability B. Inability of expression C. Confidently share his opinion. D. Winning in competition. 7. The following are safe work place habits. Which one is not? A. Wearing protective gear. B. Extending oneself when on ladder. C. Reporting unsafe working conditions. D. Taking criticism well. 8. Which one of the following is a way of managing individual performance? A. Setting development plans late B. Hiding your plans from your manager C. Knowing the available opportunities and strive to achieve them D. Avoiding informal groups 9. Identify a method that can be used to manage a feeling of insecurity at a work place A. Collecting rumours to know level of insecurity B. Measuring the level of insecurity C. Having a clear goal in career development D. Inquiring the level of insecurity from the manager. 10. Which one of the following conditions promotes spread of sexually transmitted infections and diseases (STIs and STDs)? A. education and high literacy levels B. accessibility to health facilities C. Men playing games with women. D. Alcoholism SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer All question 11. You have been recruited as the new CEO of Marafiki ltd, and you intend to bring a new leadership style into the management of the company that achieve teamwork and bring the desired changes to help the company achieve the desired goals. List Four qualities of a good lead (4 Marks) 12. Outline Three effects of poor time management. (3 Marks) 13. Explain Four types of interpersonal communication (4 Marks) 14. Name the Seven steps involved in decision making process (7 Marks) 15. List Four characteristics of an enthusiastic employee. (4 Marks) 16. Highlight Five methods of increasing self-productivity. (5 Marks) 17. Mention Four ways of developing positive self-image. (4 Marks) 18. State Four benefits of keeping records in an organization (4 Marks) 19. Outline Five measures that the management may take to ensure the its employees become obedience to ethical values. (5 Marks

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE i. Time allocated TWO (2) hours. ii. This paper has TWO sections A and B. iii. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. This paper consists of FOUR (4) printed pages. SECTION A: (10 MARKS) In this section, each question carries one (1) mark. Answer all questions in this section. Choose the correct answer and write it in the answer booklet provided. 1. The terms below defines an entrepreneur, which one does not? (1 mark) A. Innovator B. Resource mobiliser C. Organization building D. Risk averse 2. State the aim of entrepreneurship? (1 mark) A. Earn a profit B. Solve customers’ needs innovatively C. Spread economic growth D. Create employment 3. Which of the following are the roles and benefits of entrepreneurship? (1 mark) A. Social development B. Improved standard of living C. Optimal use of resources D. All of the above 4. The following relate to starting a business, except? (1 mark) A. Trade services B. Getting money and material C. Business idea D. Understanding customer needs 5. Among the following, which is the odd one out? (1 mark?) A. Partnership B. Sole Proprietorship C. Joint Stock Company D. Amalgamation 6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an entrepreneur? (1 mark) A. Creative activity B. Risk bearing activity C. Purposeful activity D. Procrastinating 7. The process of improving the skills and knowledge of entrepreneurs through various training and classroom programs is known as? (1 mark) A. Planning B. Organizing C. Entrepreneurship development D. Coordinating 8._____________ is the term given to money used to start a business. (1 mark) A. Business money B. Capital C. Start Ups D. Debt capital 9. Identify the role played by the society in boosting entrepreneurship. (1 mark) A. Providing raw materials B. Creating needs and demands C. Consuming business products D. Importing goods and services 10. Which of the following are commercial functions of Entrepreneur? (1 mark) A. Finance and Accounting B. Leadership C. Innovation D. Networking SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Attempt all questions in this section. 11. Define the term Enterprise as used in entrepreneurship. (2 marks) 12. List Three considerations that an entrepreneur should make when evaluating the viability of a business opportunity. (3 Marks) 13. Mwikali owns a hotel in Machakos town. Her friend is employed at the county commissioner office as the secretary. Four differences that the two have in their different type’s employment. (4marks) 14. Highlight Four challenges that may be associated with a partnership form of business. (4 marks) 15. List Five contribution of an entrepreneur to the national development. (5 marks) 16. Name Three types of entrepreneurs. (3 marks) 17. Mention Four sources that can be used in the generation of a business idea. (4 marks) 18. Rose is potential entrepreneur and intend to start a cereals business. State Three factors that Irene should consider before starting the business. (3 marks) 19. Highlight Four qualities of a good manager. (4 marks) 20. Identify Four types of business records. (4 marks) 21. Give Four benefits of ICT to a business enterprise. (4 marks)