August 9, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. This paper consists of THREE (3) printed pages Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (40 MARKS) Attempt all questions in this section. 1. State FOUR reasons why the government put in place laws governing protection of ICT (4 marks) 2. Name FOUR examples of word processors (4 marks) 3. Outline FIVE major types of computer threats (5 marks) 4. List FOUR devices that correspond to the following; computer input, Storage and output (4 marks) 5. State FIVE uses of the internet (4 marks) 6. List FOUR services that are offered by internet (4 marks) 7. State FOUR components of a computer network (4 marks) 8. Highlight FOUR emerging trends in computer technology (4 marks) 9. List FOUR formulas that are used in spreadsheets (4 marks) 10. Identify THREE types of computer software (3 marks)   SECTION B: (60MARKS) Attempt any THREE questions in this section. 11. a. Explain FIVE methods one can a computer from computer viruses (10 marks) b. Describe FIVE types of cyber security threats (10 marks) 12. a. Explain FOUR word processing utilities in Microsoft word (8 marks) b. Using examples describe, SIX data types used in spreadsheets. (12 marks) 13. a. Explain SIX advantages of using an email (12 marks) b. Identify the steps one uses to create a new outlook email account (8 marks) 14. Using the internet skills answer the following questions: i. What is abbreviation WWW in full? (1 mark) ii. What is the importance of the WWW? (1 mark) iii. You visit your friend’s house and find her searching for books on the Internet. What is the status of your friend’s computer and how this status was achieved? (2 marks) iv. At home, your grandfather watches you working on your computer. He recently heard about the Internet and wants to know what it is. How will you define the word ‘internet’ to him? (2 marks) v. You own a small bookstore. Because of the popularity of the Internet, you decide to provide online services to your customers. How will you get Internet connection? (2 marks) vi. Explain SIX activities that use the World Wide Web. (12 marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. SECTION A (40 Marks) Answer ALL the questions SECTION B (60 Marks) Answer any THREE questions b) A floor measuring 45𝑚 by 20𝑚 is to be covered with square tiles of side 15𝑐𝑚 each. Calculate the number of such tiles required. (4 Marks) c) A lampshade is in the shape of a frustum of a cone and has a vertical height of 8cm, with top and bottom radii as 3cm and 9cm respectively. Calculate the area of the material used. (6 Marks) 15. a) In a production process, it takes 27 hours to produce 3 coppers, 2 iron and 3 steel rods; it takes 21 hours to produce 1 copper, 3 iron and 2 steel rods; while it takes 17 hours to produce 2 coppers, 1 iron and 2 steel rods. Use substitution method to determine how long it takes to produce each type of rod. (10 Marks) b) A sea vessel travels from town 𝐴(30°𝑁, 40°𝑊) due East for 120 hours to town B. The average speed of the vessel is 30 knots. Given that 1nm=1.852 Km. and take the radius of the earth to be 6370 Km. Calculate the: i. Speed of the vessel in km/hr. ii. Distance between towns A and B; iii. Position of town B. (10 Marks) 16. Table below shows the lengths in millimeters of metal bars used in a mechanical workshop. a) Draw a cumulative frequency curve and use it to determine the following: i. Median (4 Marks) ii. Interquartile range (3 Marks) iii. Mode. (3 Marks) b) Calculate the (i). Mean (4 Marks) (ii). Standard deviation. (6 Marks) 17. a) Find the equations of the straight line (i). Joining the points (–2, 5) and (4, 7) (3Marks) (ii). Through the point (3, -2) and parallel to the line whose equation is; 3𝑥 + 6𝑦 − 8 = 0 (3Marks) (iii). Through the point (-1, 4) and perpendicular to the line whose equation is; 6𝑥 − 3𝑦 − 15 = 0 (4 Marks) b) A farmer has two tractors A and B. The tractors working together can plough a farm in 2 1/2 hours. One day the tractors started to plough the farm together. After 1 hour and 10 minutes tractor B broke down but tractor A continued alone and completed the job in a further 4 hours. Find: (i). The fraction of work done by the tractors, working for one hour. (2 Marks) (ii). The fraction of the job done by tractor A when tractor B broke down. (3 Marks) (iii). The time each tractor working alone would have taken to plough the farm. (5 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. SECTION A: (40MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. 1. Define the TERM communication. (2 Marks) 2. Outline FIVE elements of communication. (5 Marks) 3. List any THREE objectives of communication. (3 Marks) 4. State TWO reasons why one should use tact and diplomacy when dealing with conflict in an organization. ( 2 Marks) 5. List THREE benefits of effective communication in an organization. (3 Marks) 6. List FOUR types of visual aids that may be used during oral presentations (4 Marks) 7. State FOUR advantages of using a computer as a tool of communication in an organization (4 Marks) 8. List FOUR documents that may be prepared in relation to formal meetings. (4 Marks) 9. Outline THREE internal sources of information in a business enterprise. (3 Marks) 10. Outline FOUR barriers to effective communication. (4 Marks) 11. State TWO ways in which one may demonstrate proper dressing and grooming during a job interview. (2 Marks) 12. Describe the meaning of the following terms as used in communication (4 Marks) a) sender b) Audience: c) Decoding: d) Encoding: SECTION B: 60 MARKS. Answer any THREE questions from this section 13. It has been observed that majority of the workers at The Utumishi Limited Company have neglected performing their duties as expected. a) As the manager of the company, write a memorandum reminding them of their duties (12 Marks) b) Discuss FOUR advantages of conducting meetings in an organization (8 Marks) 14. The Principal of your institution sent an invitation to all the parents of the students for an urgent meeting. Unfortunately only a handful of parents turned up and they observed that the information was received rather late. a) Explain FIVE factors that one should consider when selecting a medium of communication (10 Marks) b) Explain FIVE circumstances under which a manager may find it appropriate to use email as a medium of communication to the employees. (10 Marks) 15. Your organization wishes to hold a motivational talk with employees and you are required to invite the guest speaker. a) As the office manager, write an invitation letter to the guest speaker (10 Marks) b) Explain FIVE important reasons for the use of visual aids in a presentation (10 Marks) 16. The Cabinet Secretary of Security, Honorable Maji, arrived at the bomb blast scene and demanded to take over the activities. This created a conflict between him and the Kenya Defense Forces that were fully in charge before his arrival. a) Explain FIVE ways in which communication flows within an organization (10 Marks) b) Explain FIVE merits of external communication in an organization (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). This paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. SECTION A: Multiple Choice Questions 1. Direct cause of an accident in a workplace is? A. Carelessness B. Not obeying the law. C. Hazardous situations or actions D. Lack of financial resources 2. Identify the pictogram below A. Highly flammable. B. Oxidizing. C. Corrosive D. Explosive 3. Fire caused by flammable solutions(petrol) can best be extinguished by? A. Water B. Dry powder C. Foam D. Sand 4. Occupational safety and health officer can use ………………. to gather issues affecting safety in a workplace. A. sick off register, occurrence register B. claim form, absenteeism register C. accident register, clearance form D. stationery requisition form, occurrence register. 5. The objective of Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA), 2007 is? A. Data analysis B. To reduce work hazards C. Ecological development D. Environmental analysis 6. The following are ergonomic hazards except? A. Extreme temperatures B. Working posture C. Repetitive movement D. Heavy lifting 7. The legal responsibilities of an employee with regards to health and safety includes? A. Provide land. B. Provision of appropriate PPE and insurance. C. To ensure that all safety instructions, training and retraining is carried within their areas of responsibility. D. Use PPE as provided to prevent risk to his/her safety and health 8. The following can be done in case of fire outbreak, except? A. Shout Fire! Fire! B. Run C. Evacuate through the stair case D. use the fire extinguisher correctly 9. One must do ……………………. with their PPE’s (personal protective equipment)? A. Have your name put on it. B. Have an expert inspect it after every use. C. Take proper care of it. D. Leave it anywhere 10. Elements of fire are…………… A. Oxygen, fuel, source of ignition B. Oxygen, smoke, fuel C. Source of ignition, ash, oxygen D. Fuel, heat, carbon dioxide 11. Give the reason for using manufacturer’s manual in a workplace? A. For maximum efficiency and safety B. Avoid accidents C. One uses less energy D. Lack of knowledge 12. The following are PPEs in work place except? A. Music earphones B. Ear muffs C. Hard hat D. Eye goggles 13. Define a hazard. A. Anything with the potential to cause harm B. Where an accident is likely to cause harm C. The likelihood of something going wrong D. An Accident waiting to happen 14. Prevention of falling hazards at the edge of a work floor can be achieved by? A. By placing warning signs at the edge of the work floor. B. By putting proper barriers at the edge of the work floor. C. By giving the workers proper instruction at the start of the work. D. By writing SOPs for the workers to follow. 15. In a safety program, the following can be included in achieving good results to prevent accidents, except A. Development of safe working conditions B. Promotion of employees’ participation in safety C. Compensation and medical payment D. Corrective action when safety rules are ignored 16. The importance of use of PPEs is ………………… A. For beauty and fashion B. Comply to policy C. Protect against safety hazards D. To impress your safety supervisor 17. In an event of an accident/ incident in a workplace, information should first be relayed to? A. The immediate supervisor B. Safety and health inspection service C. The medical department D. The safety and health committee 18. The following are hazards in a workplace, which of them is not a physical hazard? A. Noisy workplace B. Dusty workplace C. Working at high D. Vibration in work place 19. OSHA was created for? A. Data analysis B. Reduction of hazards. C. EIA inspection D. Ecological development 20. Name types of contingency measures in OSH? A. Evacuation, fire drill B. Basic life support, decontamination C. Spillage control, isolation D. Evacuation, isolation SECTION B: Short Response Questions (40 MARKS) 21. State FOUR importance of working in clean and safe environment (4 Marks) 22. Describe FOUR factors to be considered when selecting personal protective equipment (PPE) (4 Marks) 23. List FOUR emergency occurrences that may arise in a workplace. (4Marks) 24. Mention FOUR steps used in risk control. (4Marks) 25. Define the following: a) ‘Duty of care’ as used in the workplace? (2 Marks) b) The role of the workplace’s health and safety representative? (2 Marks) 26. Highlight FOUR components of an accident report? (4 Marks) 27. Workers are exposed to a number of hazards, state FOUR indicators of hazards in workplace (4 Marks) 28. State FOUR importance of safety and health audits in a work place (4 Marks) 29. Identify FOUR OSH training records. (4 Marks) 30. Outline FOUR safe work practices to prevent injury and accidents. (4 Marks) SECTION C: Extended Response Questions (40 Marks) Attempt any TWO Questions 31. In a staff meeting, you have been requested to explain to the new staff the safety precautions followed in the company. In reference the various hazards encountered in your work place, discuss TEN personal protective equipment’s that the new staff should have and the safety rules that they must follow. (20 Marks) 32. a) As one of industry policy maker, you have been called upon to review safety policies in your company, identify FOUR key regulations and subsidiary laws that deal with Occupational Safety and Health issues. (8 Marks) b) Briefly describe SIX duties of employees in ensuring Safety, Health and welfare at the workplace. (12Marks) 33. The manager at your workplace has called for a meeting to discuss on safety and welfare of the workers, as the safety officer, you are requested to give talk about hazards and their control measures. Discuss TEN control measures that the company may use to control hazards. (20 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. SECTION A (20 MARKS) Answer ALL questions, each question is 1 Mark 1. Select an option that best describes Global Warming A. Warmer weather provides breeding grounds for insects such as malaria-carrying mosquitoes B. Presence of fuels such as natural gas and oil produces greenhouse gases in excessive amounts C. Greenhouse gases rise into the atmosphere and allows the sun’s energy to escape D. Earth’s temperature has risen about 1 degree Fahrenheit mostly due to nonAnthropogenic activities 2. CFC stands for ________ A. Carbon Fluorine Carbon B. Chlorofluorocarbons C. Compact Fluro Carbons D. Climate For Change 3. Select a method of disposal of environmentally hazardous material A. Open Tanks B. Open pits C. Injection wells D. Incineration 4. Identify the disposal method that is most ideal for electronic waste A. Landfills B. Recycling C. Injection wells D. Deep sea 5. Identify a convention that directly address climate change_____________ A. Ramsar convention B. UNCCD C. UNFCCC D. UNCBD 6. Chemical splashes are common hazard in Laboratories. Which PPE does not protect from this? A. Goggles B. Overall C. Safety boots D. Earplugs 7. Identify the principal Act that guides environmental management in Kenya A. Water Act B. County government by-laws C. Environment Management Co-ordination Act, 1999 D. Air quality regulations 2014 8. The Kyoto protocol seeks to reduce six major Greenhouse Gases. Select the odd one out A. Methyl Bromide B. Carbon Dioxide C. Nitrous Oxides D. Methane 9. Classification of resources that are present and have been surveyed but their usage is limited due to lack of technology to extract them is referred to as ______________ A. Stock resource B. Reserve resource C. Actual resource D. Limited resource 10. E- waste recycling is important for the following reasons except A. Safe disposal of electrical and electronic wastes can be achieved B. Materials like precious metals plastics etc., can be recovered and be reused C. No other environmental pollutions can be controlled to a considerable amount because of this process D. More employment opportunities can be made separately for this process 11. Arsenic is the most poisonous pollutants in: A. Soil B. Air C. Water D. Rocks 12. Pesticide residues in crops enter the human bodies through? A. Birds and insects B. Human food chain C. Animals only D. Plants only 13. Greenhouse effect can cause global disasters by ________ A. Favouring forest fires B. Increasing the frequency off cyclones C. Affecting agricultural production, sea food production and raising sea levels due tomelting of polar ice D. None of the above 14. Major reservoir of carbon dioxide is A. The ocean beds B. The atmosphere C. Plants and animals D. Chemicals 15. Primary air pollutants are A. Oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor B. Carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, Sulphur oxides, hydrocarbons C. Carbon dioxide, Sulphur dioxide and ozone D. Sulphur and phosphorus 16. Hazardous chemicals cause A. No harm to human bodies B. Metabolic disorder in human bodies C. Little harm to animals D. Injury to body limbs 17. Which of the following is not an idea behind solid waste management A. Control of waste generation B. Storage and collection C. Disposal D. Stop the waste generation 18. The term ISWM refers to _____________ A. International Solid Waste Management B. Integrated Solid Waste Management C. Integrated Solid Waste Machine D. International Solid Waste Mechanism 19. Environment means: A. A beautiful landscape B. Industrial production C. Sum total of all conditions that affect the life and development of all organisms on earth D. Wildlife 20. Which activity decrease oxygen levels in the atmosphere? A. Deforestation B. Animal Hunting C. Mining D. Grazing SECTION B (40 MARKS) Attempt ALL questions in this section. 21. Outline THREE benefits of stakeholder engagement in implementing environmental programs (3 Marks) 22. State FOUR importance of monitoring environmental hazards in a workplace (4 Marks) 23. State FOUR benefits of enforcing environmental laws in Kenya (4 Marks) 24. State FOUR benefits of minimizing wastes (4Marks) 25. State FOUR aspects you can consider when choosing a suitable storage container for environmentally hazardous materials (4Marks) 26. List FOUR categories of Environmental resources with specific examples (4 Marks) 27. Outline FOUR measures one would put in place to ensure safety of workers at workplace (4 Marks) 28. Identify FOUR ways of achieving energy efficiency at workplace (4 Marks) 29. Explain THREE ways of waste minimization at the supplies chain of an organization (6 Marks) 30. Domestic waste has a lot of plastic waste. State THREE types of plastic recycling (3 Marks) SECTION C (40 MARKS) 31. a) Explain FIVE effects of global warming phenomenon on earth (10 Marks) b) Explain FIVE functions of National Environmental Management Authority (10 Marks) 32. a) Discuss FIVE factors to consider when selecting an environmental program for an organization (10 Marks) b) Discuss FIVE challenges associated with implementing an environmental program in an organization (10 Marks) 33. a) Explain FIVE uses of feedback obtained in public participation in environmental agitation (10 Marks) b) Explain FIVE benefits of environmental reports (10 Marks

SECTION A: (20 MARKS) 1. Punctuality is a sign of professionalism in an employee. Which one of the following is a benefit of punctuality in work place? (1mark) A. It leads to job enhancement. B. It increases employee credibility. C. It creates bad impression. D. It leads to promotions. 2. Poor assigning of duties to employees can lead to inefficiency in an organization. Identify a factor from the list below that should be considered when assigning tasks to employee? (1mark) A. Matching skills with the tasks. B. Giving employees a lot of work. C. Giving challenging work to employees. D. Assigning more tasks to the highly paid employees. 3. _____________ is a method of training employees in an organisation to increase their productivity. (1mark) A. Assigning tasks. B. On-job training. C. Setting standards D. Setting organizational goals. 4. Managing safety and health is an important part of managing a business. The following are components of a successful safety management program. Which one is not? (1mark) A. Formalized safety policies. B. Effective and regular communication about safety and health measures. C. Implementation of proper work schedules. D. Frequent safety training and discussion. 5. The following are personal skills which can improve efficiency in an organization, except? (1mark) A. Being an active listener. B. Working well with others. C. Organizing work. D. Challenging other peoples’ work. 6. Choose which one of the following is an indicator of stress in work place? (1mark) A. Acceptance of responsibilities. B. Workers strikes. C. Poor public image. D. Lack of delegation. 7. For an organization to achieve its goals there must be a good relationship environment. Which one of the following type of relationship is important in work place? (1mark) A. Employee – employer relationship. B. Trainee – trainer relationship. C. Siblings’ relationships. D. Parent – child relationship 8. Written communication can be classified _____________ type of communication. (1mark) A. Non-verbal B. Verbal C. Visual D. Audial – visual 9. Which of the following strategy can be used by an organisation experiencing low employees performance due to high abuse drug? (1marks) A. Terminate contracts of workers taking drugs. B. Give more challenging tasks to the drug abusers. C. Reduce workers’ salaries. D. Educate employees on dangers of drug and drug abuse. 10. Managers should always try to develop strong work ethics among employees. Which one of the following can be used by managers to use to develop strong work ethics among employees? (1mark) A. Giving challenging tasks to employees. B. Delegating their duties to employees. C. Punishing the wrong doers in the organization. D. Setting clear goals and objectives. 11. In every work place policies are essential. Give a reason why every organization should have set policies in work place? (1mark) A. To minimize stress in the organization. B. To provide guidance and direction in the organization. C. To save on labour cost in the organization. D. To minimize idleness in the organization. 12. Communication involves a cycle that may include the following except? (1mark) A. Channel B. Receiver C. Time D. Gender 13. The listed below presents safe work place habits. Choose which one is not. (1mark) A. Operating equipment only if qualified. B. Using proper tools for the job. C. Reporting unsafe working conditions. D. Time management. 14. Team work builds strong employee relationship. Which one of the following is a benefit of team work in work place? (1mark) A. It leads to increased productivity. B. It brings about critism of weak ideas. C. It creates a good leisure time. D. It brings about challenges to the lazy workers. 15. Which of the following drug has the LEAST effect on employee performance in a work place? (1mark) A. Bhang B. Alcohol C. Cocaine D. Caffeine 16. Breakdown of communication between the general manager and employees in an organisation can be caused by ___________________ (1mark) A. Management B. Administration C. Interpersonal barrier D. Financial barrier. 17. The following are problem solving skills except? (1mark) A. Active listening B. Planning C. Creativity D. Proper communication 18. State which one of the following can improve time management in work place? (1mark) A. Introduction of new ideas. B. Leaving from jobs late hours. C. Participation of employees. D. Prioritizing of tasks. 19. Training and development opportunity to employees leads to efficiency in an organization. The following are ways of training and development in work place, which one is not? (1mark) A. Continuing with education. B. Managerial skills. C. Serving as a resource person in conference and workshops. D. Participating in training programs. 20. Name which one among the following is a cause of internal stress in a work place. (1mark) A. Pent – up – worries B. Laziness C. Survival stress. D. Expenses SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer all questions 21. Emotions of employees affect the overall performance of the organization. Highlight four ways emotions can positively influence the performance of an employee in a work place. (4marks) 22. Majority of managers in an organization advocate for punctuality of employees. Highlight five reasons for such an advocacy. (5marks) 23. Time management is an important factor that influences achievement of organizational goals. Outline three ways that should be adopted to ensure time management in an organization. (3marks) 24. Stress is one of the factors that lead to inefficiency in an organization. List four ways of managing stress in employees. (4marks) 25. A work plan represents the formal roadmap for a project. Mention the importance of work plan in the work place. (5 marks) 26. Nowadays drug and drug abuse is common in many organizations. Give Three measures to control this problem. (3 marks) 27. HIV/Aids is one of the pandemics that has affected many organizations. Name four ways of preventing HIV/Aids. (4marks) 28. Motivation of employees is one of the factors that lead to efficiency of employees. Highlight four ways a manager can motivate employees in work place. (4marks) 29. Delegation refers to transfer of responsibility from specific task from one person to another. Highlight four reasons why

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE i. Time allocated: TWO (2) hours. ii. This paper has three sections A, B and C. Answer questions in each section as per instructions given in the section. iii. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. iv. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. v. Do not write on the question paper This paper consists of SEVEN (7) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (20 MARKS) In this section, each question carries one (1) mark. Answer all questions in this section. Choose the correct answer and write it in the answer booklet provided. 1) Which one of the following is not a strategy for a small business entity? A. To increase turnover B. To increase profitability C. To reduce competitive advantage D. To achieve stated objectives 2) What is the name of a person legally appointed to resolve financial difficulties of an insolvent firm? A. Administrator. B. Predictor C. Auditor D. Receiver manager 3) What is seed capital in entrepreneurship? A. Initial personal saving B. Initial amount of money to start a business C. Initial donation from friends D. Initial money to buy seeds for planting 4) How is direct marketing beneficial to an entrepreneur? A. Large potential audience B. Builds relationship with customers C. Low investment D. Addresses a wider market 5) Which one is a limitation of self-employment? A. Unpredicted income B. Being own boss C. Making independent decisions D. Selling of commodities 6) How do goods and services reach the market? A. Through monopolies B. Through multi-level pyramids C. Through entering the market D. Through market channels 7) Which one of the following is a way of innovation? A. Resisting change B. Retaining existing technology C. Maintaining status quo D. New distribution methods 8) Which one of the following is an internal business environment? A. Competition B. Company culture C. Politics D. Economy 9) How can government provide financial assistance to entrepreneurs? A. Employing financial advisors. B. Employing financial intermediaries C. Establishing industrial estates D. Establishing financial lending institutions 10) Which one of the following is a characteristic of a good business opportunity? A. Ready to see B. Easy to tell C. Ready market D. Readily high interest rates 11) Which one of the following is the most critical component of business plan? A. Executive summary B. Market analysis C. Company description D. Table of contents 12) Which one of the following is not a trait of a potential entrepreneur? A. Doing things without being forced by events B. Acting on opportunities C. Avoiding risks D. Taking action to overcome obstacles 13) The following factor affects entrepreneurship development. Which one is it? A. Sales B. Time C. Customers D. Government policy 14) What is a product demand? A. Customer willingness to purchase a product at a given price. B. Customer willingness to view a product at given price C. Customer willingness to take a product at a given price. D. Customer willingness to inquire about a product at a given price 15) Which one of the following is a technique used to accomplish a project economically using the minimum available time with limited resources? A. Project scheduling B. Network analysis C. Budget analysis D. Critical path 16) Which one of the following capital is used to finance a high risk and a perceived high reward project? A. Fixed capital. B. Current capital. C. Seed capital. D. Venture capital 17) What is globalization? A. Process by which business units start operating on international scale. B. Process by which business units start exporting goods. C. Process by which business starts importing goods. D. Process by which managers of a company move around the globe 18) Why do employees resist a change in an organization? A. Fear of known. B. Excess certainty. C. Fear of departure from status quo. D. Trust in one making changes. 19) Which one of the following is a problem that may arise from use of internet? A. Attacks from competitors. B. Attacks from hackers. C. Attacks from enemy. D. Attacks from public. 20) Which one of the following is a limitation of using e-commerce? A. Faster buying process. B. Cost reduction. C. Flexibility of customers. D. Insecurity. SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer all questions in this section. 21) State the five Ss of Kaizen principles of continuous improvement (5 Marks) 22) Identify three benefits of cost benefit analysis that may accrue to an entrepreneur before implementing a project. (3Marks) 23) Highlight three public relation strategies that an entrepreneur may apply to improve the image of his business. (3 Marks) 24) List two sources of business ideas (2 Marks) 25) Marketing is an essential process to an entrepreneur running a business in any market. (i) What is the meaning of marketing mix? (2 Marks) (ii) State four (Ps) of marketing mix. (4Marks) 26) State five reasons of government involvement in business activities. (5Marks) 27) Identify four ways of self-evaluation of an entrepreneur. (4Marks) 28) List three advantages of ordinary share capital as a source of business finance. (3 marks) 29) State five Cultural values that encourages development of entrepreneurship practice. (5Marks) 30) State four barriers to effective communication in business. (4Marks) . SECTION C: (40 MARKS) Answer any TWO questions in this section. 31) Moses runs a medium size manufacturing business in Nairobi industrial area. In order to improve communication within the firm and externally, he intends to install electronic communications systems in the firm. a) In relation to electronic communication, explain five advantages of using internet for business communication. (10 marks) b) Discus five benefits that accrues to a business organisation that has developed a website for the customers. (10 Marks) 32) Kukena SACCO distributes its products nationally. The have developed an online customer order and purchase system which has resulted to increased sales and therefore created a problem of inadequate storage space. They are considering purchase or lease