August 12, 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES This assessment requires you to demonstrate competence against unit of competency: In this assessment, you will be required to answer written questions. i. The paper consists of three sections: A, B and C ii. You are allocated Two (2) hours to attempt all the questions. iii. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. iv. Do not write on the question paper v. Scientific calculator can be used vi. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets [ ] SECTION A – 20 MARKS 1. What is the amount left over when a number can’t be divided equally? A. Whole number B. Remainder C. Odd Number D. Divisor 2. Choose the fraction equivalent to the decimal 0.09 A. 9/10 B. 90/10 C. 90/100 D. 9/100 3. On a real number line, what is the midpoint of -4 and 18? A. 8 B. 11 C. 7 D. 4 4. How many right angles does a square have? A. 4 B. 1 C. 24 D. 26 5. Determine the value of 13-2×3+14+(2+5) A. 13 B. 9 C. 15 D. 6 6. The sum of the measures of two complementary angles is A. 180° B. 60⁰ C. 450 D. 90⁰ 7. A teacher is organizing an inter-school sport day. There are 8 teams in the competition. Each team must play one game against each of the other teams. What is the total number of games played? A. 8 B. 28 C. 64 D. 54 8. A straight line on a d-t graph represents A. Slowing down B. Constant speed C. Speeding up D. No movement 9. If a transversal intersects two parallel lines then the interior angles on the same side of the transversal are A. vertically opposite angles B. supplementary angles C. complementary angles D. alternate angles 10. Which of the following are arranged from smallest unit to largest unit? A. Mm, m, cm, km B. Km, m, cm, mm C. Cm, mm, m, km D. Mm, cm, m, km 11. What is an object measured in three dimensions of length, width, and height? A. One-dimensional B. Five-dimensional C. Three-dimensional D. Two-dimensional 12. What is the next number in the pattern 2, 6, 12, 20, 30….? A. 36 B. 40 C. 42 D. 50 13. What is the square root of the number obtained when 196 is multiplied by 4? A. 28 B. 56 C. 392 D. 784 14. Two shelves are to be joined to provide space for bigger file storage. If the first shelf length measure 4meters 56cm and 6mm, while the second shelf measure 3 meters48cm and 4mm. what will be the new length of the joined shelf? A. 8.5m B. 8 meters 5 cm C. 8.41 meters D. 8meters, 4cm and Imm 15. On a map of scale 1:100,000 a rectangular plot of land measures 7em by 4cm. what are the actual lengths of the plot in kilometres? A. 70,000 by 40,000 B. 700 by 400 C. 70 by 40 D. 7 by 4 16. A company sold 2.5 tonnes of rice in 2kg packets. How many packets were sold? A. 125 B. 1250 C. 2500 D. 5000 17. When 55 is added to a certain number and the sum is divided by 3, the result is 4 times the original number. What is the original number? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 4 18. What is the gradient of line that passes through the points (3,2) and (2,0)? A. -2 B. -1 C. 2 D. 0 19. Which of the following is not a solid? A. cone B. frustrum C. cuboid D. rectangle.   SECTION B – 40 MARKS 20. Given that a:b = 1:2 and b:c = 3:4. Find a:b:c (4marks) 21. Three bells ring at intervals 30mins, 35mins and 50 mins. If they ring together at 11:25 p.m on Monday at what time and day will they next ring together? (4marks) SECTION C – 40 MARKS Answer any 2 questions 30. A rectangular plot measures 100m by 200m. Determine: a. Its perimeter in km. (4mks) b. Its area in m2. (4mks) c. Its area in ha. (4mks) d. Square tiles of 100cm by 100cm are used to cover the floor. How many tiles are used? (4mks) e. If the cost of 1 tile is sh. 25. How much money will be spent on tiles. (4mks) 31. a) Using a ruler and pair of compasses only construct a triangle ABC in which AB = 6cm BC= 7cm and angle B = 112.50 and measure AC. (6mks) b) Drop a perpendicular line from point B to cut AC at N and measure NB. (4mks) c) using AC as base and height NB find the area of the triangle ABC (4mks) d) construct triangle ABC in which BC = 6.8 cm angle B = 65 and angle A = 45. (4mks) 32. The table below shows the distribution of marks scored by 40 students in an examination. (a) Find the value of x (2mark) (b) State the modal class (2 mark) (c) Calculate the mean mark correct to 2 d.p (8 marks) (d) Calculate the median mark (8 marks) 33. Four towns A, B, C and D are such that B is 84km direct to the north of A and C is on a bearing of N65oW from A at a distance of 60km. D is on a bearing of 340o from C at a distance of 30km. Using a scale of 1 cm rep 10km a) Make an accurate scale drawing showing the relative positions of the towns (10marks) b) Find the distance and bearing of B from C (4marks) c) Find the distance and bearing of D from B (4marks) d) Find the bearing of A from D (2mark) 34. Construct a cube of side 4 cm (20 marks) 35. Find the volume and surface area of the frustrum below. (20 marks)

SECTION A – (10 Marks) Each question carries 1 Mark 1. Which one of these is a communication skill? A. Talking at the same time as someone else B. Listening to what people say C. Putting your fingers in your ears D. None of the above 2. What body language shows that you are listening? A. Turning away from the speaker B. Nodding and making eye contact C. Looking out of the window D. All of the above 3. The _____________ is the person who transmits the message A. Receiver B. Driver C. Sender D. Cleaner 4. The response to a sender’s message is a _____________? A. Message B. Feedback C. Feed forward D. Feed 5. ___________ refers to all the factors that disrupt communication A. Nonsense B. Noise C. Smile D. Nobody 6. Environmental barriers are the same as ____________noise A. Physiological B. Psychological C. Physical D. Sociological 7. Our dress code is an example of_______________ communication A. Verbal B. Nonverbal C. Written D. Spoken 8. Letter, email and telephone are examples of _____________ A. Message B. Feedback C. Channel D. Encoding 9. ___ means communication without words. A. Object communication B. Written communication C. Oral communication D. Non-verbal communication 10. Normally communication is ___, wherein the information or message is transferred from one person to another. A. Impersonal B. Interpersonal C. Personal D. important   SECTION B – 40 Marks 11. Give the difference between the following types of communication i. Verbal and Non-Verbal Communication (2 Marks) ii. Formal and Informal Communication (2 Marks) iii. Downward and Upward Communication (2 Marks) 12. State three purposes of using downward communication by the managers. (3 Marks) 13. State three characteristics of effective communication. (3 Marks) 14. State three barriers to effective communication. (3 Marks) 15. State three types of information sources. (3 Marks) 16. List three types of questions in an office setting, and for each, give an example. (6 Marks) 17. a) What is an Email? (2 Marks) b) State three tips for effective business emails (3 Marks) 18. a) What is a ‘memo’? (2 Marks) b) State the main purpose of writing a memo. (1 Mark) 19. a) Define the term ‘ethics’. (2 Marks) b) Explain the following perspectives of ethics: i. Moral rules (2 Marks) ii. Virtues (2 Marks) iii. Principles (2 Marks)

SECTION A: (20 MARKS) Answer ALL the Questions in this section. Each question carries 1 mark. 1. ALL of the following are types of nutrients except. A. protein B. starch and sugars C. fluoride D. Vitamins. 2. Importance of nutrients are all the below except. A. To build tissues. B. To produce energy. C. To make waste. D. To keep healthy. 3. Which of the following is the role of vitamin A? A. Give energy B. Resist infections. C. Prevent Goitre. D. Produce heat. 4. Which nutrient is not found in food: A. Vitamin B. B. Thiamine. C. Vitamin C. D. Vitamin D. 5. Which of the following describes osteomalacia? A. Lack of balanced diet. B. Lack of calcium absorption in women. C. Vitamin c deficiency D. Lack of night vision. 6. The following is a nutritional disorder caused by eating more than intended for the body is; A. Malnutrition. B. Obese. C. Marasmus. D. Anaemia. 7. The following is a characteristic of the community development approach to health promotion. A. Improving individual attitudes and beliefs are key to successful health promotion. B. There is a close relationship between individual health and its social and material contexts, thus are relevant when developing initiatives for change. C. Individuals need to change personal behavior rather than to change the environment to promote health. D. Individuals do not need to change personal behavior or change the environment to promote health. 8. What is the least nutrient that one should take in a meal and is effective? A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin B. C. PROTEIN. D. Iron. 9. Community participation can be encouraged by: A. Inviting people from civic organizations. B. Referring to the doctor for prescriptions. C. Listening when people relate their problems. D. Encouraging sponsorship to programs. 10. Identify what food processing means: A. It is a process of making food sweeter. B. Production of reliable food production. C. Replace or add micronutrient, and make it taste better. D. Promotion of health. 11. The meaning of Anorexia is defined in nutrition as? A. Supporting conditions for healthy habits B. Loss of appetite C. Vomiting during meal time D. Lack of nutrients in food. 12. What iron causes anemic deficiency? A. Potassium B. calcium C. folate. D. Vitamin A. 13. One of the following nutritional disorder is the most widespread in the world.is found in all countries be it rich or poor affecting mostly women and children. A. Malaria B. Night blindness. C. Anaemia. D. Rickets. 14. The best way to prevent infections in children is to give a child A. Immunization is okay for your baby. B. All kinds of iron rich food. C. Vitamin A. D. Vaccines will prevent disease 15. When a child is undernourished and have several infections is likely to develop? A. Persistent growth failure. B. Extreme wasting. C. Protein energy malnutrition. D. Protruding belly. 16. What does the term nutritional disorder in malnutrition mean? A. Insufficient intake of energy, protein. B. Excess intake of nutrients. C. Absorption of excess intake. D. Disorder caused by eating too little or too much of different nutrients. 17. An effective way to improve food security is? A. Using surveillance and data collection. B. Prevention and control of food shortages. C. Planning campaigns. D. Provision of resources in healthcare. 18. Choose one which is not a nutritional disorder. A. Bipolar disorder B. Rickets C. Pellagra D. Goitre. 19. When everyone is able to get enough food throughout the year to satisfy their nutritional needs is known as: A. surveillance B. Community development. C. Food security. D. Obesity. 20. Which of the following is not a vitamin B? A. Riboflavin. B. Thiamine. C. Biotin. D. Retinol.   SECTION B: (40 MARKS) Answer ALL Questions from this section. 21. Identify FOUR types of Nutrients and their roles in the body (4 marks) 22. Explain the meaning of the following terminologies: (4 marks) a. BMR(basal metabolic Rate) b. nutrients 23. Differentiate between micronutrients and macronutrients. (2 marks) 24. State FOUR challenges faced by overweight individuals. (4 marks) 25. Highlight FOUR problems related to food AID. (4 marks) 26. explain the TWO types of vitamin A . (4 Marks) 27. Outline FOUR ways food become contaminated. (4 marks) 28. State FOUR health effects of anaemia. (4 marks) 29. Mention FOUR effects of Iodine Deficiency Disorders (IDDs) . (4 marks) 30. List FOUR training materials community health workers use when conducting training session for community health volunteers. (2 marks) 31. State FOUR factors that may lead to rish of obesity. (4 marks)   SECTION C: (40 MARKS) Attempt ANY TWO Questions Only from this section. 32. Food security is a major global issue affecting households in USAID conceptual framework. a) Explain FOUR components of food security benefits of integrated community mobilization. (10 marks) b) Outline the TEN factors that affect food security. (10 marks) 33. Community health needs assessment is important to a community health assistant: a) Define food security. (2 marks) b) Describe FOUR actions that will improve food security. (8 marks) c) Highlight FIVE effects of HIV on food security. (10 marks) 34. For a successful nutritional assessment implementation, it requires several steps to take place. It is a process but help reach many people in the community. . a) Discuss FOUR nutritional assessments. (10 marks) b) Explain TWO methods of nutritional assessment primary data collection tools and their examples. (10 marks)

Community Health and Nutrition Education May/Aug 2023 Past Paper – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. SECTION A: Short Response Questions (40 MARKS) Attempt ALL the questions in this section. The maximum marks for each question are indicated. 1. The following pictograms are displayed in your workplace. Identify the health safety signs. (2 Marks) 2. The following terms are key in occupational and health standards, briefly give your understanding on each of the statements. (3 Marks) a. Accident. b. Safety policy. c. Safety program. 3. Define hazard and give FOUR types of hazards in your workplace. (5 Marks) 4. Work area is cleaned and made safe before use in accordance with organization policy, outline THREE dangers to the work personnel that are associated with poor cleaning. (3 Marks) 5. Identify any FOUR types of safety inspections in your work place. (4 Marks) 6. Contingency measures are key in occupational health and safety, give any FIVE basic emergency procedures. (5 Marks) 7. In all workplaces, occupational health and safety regulations should be followed, outline any THREE employer’s duties in accordance to OSH Policies. (3 Marks) 8. Outline the FIVE procedures followed in implementation of maintaining OSH-related records. (5 Marks) 9. You have been requested to carry out an internal safety audit for your company, identify FIVE key elements for compliance. (5 Marks) 10. Outline FIVE job factors that could lead to poor health and safety behavior in the workplace. (5 Marks) SECTION B: Extended Response Questions (60 Marks) Attempt at least 3 questions in this section. The maximum marks for each question are 20 Marks. 11. a) Fire hazard is one of the common hazards in different work areas. Fire risks are classified according to the nature of material that is burning, discuss the FOUR classes of fire giving the type of fire extinguishers used in each. (12 Marks) b) You are required to train new staff members in a workplace on hazards encountered. Discuss FOUR common hazards in the workplace. (8 Marks) 12. a) As a safety officer in a workplace, explain FOUR types of information one would obtain from accident incident occurrence report. (8 Marks) b) As an occupational health and safety expert, the general manager has ordered you to carry out risk assessment in your department with the aim of ensuring safety to all the staff. Explain the SIX procedures you will follow to undertake the risk assessment. (12 Marks) 13. In a staff meeting, you have been requested to explain to the new staff the safety precautions followed in the company. Discuss TEN safety rules that they must follow. (20 Marks) 14. a) Contingency planning is crucial to the health and safety of everyone within your workplace or facility. Discuss the FIVE contingency planning steps. (10 Marks) b) Injury, damage and loss caused by accidents in workplace can be avoided or minimized where possible. Briefly discuss TEN preventive measures which can be put in place to minimize accidents and injuries. (10 Marks

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets (). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. SECTION A (40 MARKS) (Answer ALL questions in this section) 1. List FOUR advantages of using questionnaires in collecting data (4 Marks) 2. List FOUR benefits of proper waste disposal (4 Marks) 3. State FOUR causes of underutilization of resources (4 Marks) 4. Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources (4 Marks) 5. State FOUR benefits of monitoring and evaluation of environmental project (4 Marks) 6. Outline FOUR precautions to consider when transporting hazardous wastes (4 Marks) 7. List FOUR important international conventions and protocols related to environmental protection (4 Marks) 8. Justify the need of eco-friendly purchasing at workplace (4 Marks) 9. State FOUR ways of minimizing water wastage at workplace (4 Marks) 10. State FOUR objectives of environmental legislation (4 Marks) SECTION B (60 MARKS) (Answer ANY THREE questions in this section) 11. a) Explain FIVE importance of engaging diverse stakeholder in environmental project implementation (10 Marks) b) Explain FIVE challenges of public participation in implementing environmental program (10Marks) 12. a) State FIVE stakeholders that can be involved in environmental impact assessment process (5Marks) b) State FIVE barriers to enforcement of environmental laws in Kenya (5Marks) c) Discuss the FIVE factors that influence effective implementation an environmental program in an organization (10 Marks) 13. a) State FIVE ways of achieving energy efficiency at workplace (5Marks) b) State FIVE causes of soil pollution (5 Marks) c) Discuss FIVE advantages of business associated with the adopting of environmentally business practices. (10 Marks) 14. a) Discuss the following types of hazards giving two examples in each case i. Ergonomic hazards (4Marks) ii. Biological hazards (3Marks) iii. Chemical hazards (3Marks) b) Explain five advantages of landfills in hazardous waste management (10Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE You have THREE (3) hours to answer all the questions. Marks for each question are as indicated in the brackets The paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. Do not write on the question paper. This paper consists of FOUR (4) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing. SECTION A (40 MARKS) Answer all questions 1. Employees with a strong work ethic place a high value on their professional success. Name four ways in which an employee can improve work ethic skills. (4 marks) 2. You have been tasked by your lead manager to coordinate team building activity in your workplace. State three characteristics portrayed by an effective team. (3 marks) 3. A group of young managers have approached you to develop a safety policy for their organization. List three safety rules at workplace that you will include. (3 marks) 4. Problem-solving skills help you determine why an issue is happening and how to solve it. State three problem solving skills expected of an employee. (3 marks). 5. Planning is important because it enables the organization to survive and grow in the ever changing environment. List four advantages of planning in an organization. (4 marks) 6. Communication is the art of developing and attaining understanding between employees. Outline four advantages of communication in an organization. (4 marks) 7. Currently there is rising abuse of drugs and substances in various organizations. State three commonly abused drugs by the employees. (3 marks) 8. Name three styles of Leadership that are practised by leaders in various organizations. (3 marks) 9. Training is a short-term process utilizing a systematic and organized procedure by which non-managerial personnel acquire technical knowledge and skills for a definite purpose. State three advantages of training employees. (3 marks) 10. Outline three ways an employee can improve self-management skills. (3 marks) 11. Time management is the process of planning and exercising conscious control of the time spent on specific activities to work efficiently and effectively. Name four benefits of time management to employees. (4 marks). 12. Stress is an emotional, mental, physical and social reaction to any perceived demands or threats. State three stress management techniques at workplace. (3 marks) SECTION B (60 MARKS) (This section has FOUR questions. Answer any THREE questions) 13. Problem analyzing involves identifying a problem and establishing the causes and effects related to a problem. The key element to problem analyzing is ensuring that the root cause is identified. a). Explain five techniques used by managers at workplace to analyze problems. (10 marks) b). Planning involves thinking about and preparing tasks that need to be done to achieve specific goals. Discuss the importance of planning by the employees. (10 marks) 14. The purpose of creating teams is to provide a frame work that will increase the ability of employees to participate in planning, problem solving and decision making to better performance and goal achievement. Team development creates a captivating atmosphere by encouraging cooperation, teamwork, and interdependence and by building trust among team members. a) Describe five stages of team development in any organization. (10 marks) b) People of any age, sex or economic status can become addicted to a drug. Discuss five factors that can affect the likelihood and speed of developing an addiction. (10 marks) 15. Policies help to manage legal risk and allow you to outline the benefits and opportunities your company provides to its workers. This helps to improve workforce morale, worker retention and job satisfaction. a) Explain five advantages of work policies and guidelines. (10 marks) b) Listening and understanding is demonstrated as per communication policy. Explain five barriers of effective communication at work place. (10 marks) 16. Leadership skills are highly valued by employers; effective leaders can motivate and help others succeed within an organization. In view of this statement; a) Explain four universal traits likely to be recognized in the successful leaders within the organization. (8 marks) b) Accountability and responsibility for own actions are demonstrated at work place. Explain three ways a manager can demonstrate accountability in the workplace. (6 marks) c) Workplace stress then is the harmful physical and emotional responses that can happen when there is a conflict between job demands on the employee and the amount of control an employee has over meeting these demands. Explain three types of workplace stress encountered by employees. (6 marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. This paper consists of THREE (3) printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing SECTION A: (40 MARKS) Attempt all questions in this section. 1. State FOUR reasons why the government put in place laws governing protection of ICT (4 marks) 2. Name FOUR examples of word processors (4 marks) 3. Outline FIVE major types of computer threats (5 marks) 4. List FOUR devices that correspond to the following; computer input, Storage and output (4 marks) 5. State FIVE uses of the internet (4 marks) 6. List FOUR services that are offered by internet (4 marks) 7. State FOUR components of a computer network (4 marks) 8. Highlight FOUR emerging trends in computer technology (4 marks) 9. List FOUR formulas that are used in spreadsheets (4 marks) 10. Identify THREE types of computer software (3 marks)   SECTION B: (60MARKS) Attempt any THREE questions in this section. 11. a. Explain FIVE methods one can a computer from computer viruses (10 marks) b. Describe FIVE types of cyber security threats (10 marks) 12. a. Explain FOUR word processing utilities in Microsoft word (8 marks) b. Using examples describe, SIX data types used in spreadsheets. (12 marks) 13. a. Explain SIX advantages of using an email (12 marks) b. Identify the steps one uses to create a new outlook email account (8 marks) 14. Using the internet skills answer the following questions: i. What is abbreviation WWW in full? (1 mark) ii. What is the importance of the WWW? (1 mark) iii. You visit your friend’s house and find her searching for books on the Internet. What is the status of your friend’s computer and how this status was achieved? (2 marks) iv. At home, your grandfather watches you working on your computer. He recently heard about the Internet and wants to know what it is. How will you define the word ‘internet’ to him? (2 marks) v. You own a small bookstore. Because of the popularity of the Internet, you decide to provide online services to your customers. How will you get Internet connection? (2 marks) vi. Explain SIX activities that use the World Wide Web. (12 marks)