August 13, 2024

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INSTRUCTIONS In this assessment, you will be required to answer questions: 1. The paper consists of three sections A, B and C 2. You are allocated 2 hours to attempt all the questions 3. You are provided with a separate answer booklet 4. Do not write on the question paper 5. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets ( )   SECTION A (20MARKS) (Answer All Questions, Each Question is 1 Mark) 1. Which best describes an ecosystem? A. It has parts that work together for a purpose. B. It is a system where living and nonliving things interact. C. It has animals that work together to create food. 2. Animals need these two things that travel through a food chain: A. Pants and animals B. Nutrients and minerals C. Popcorn and chocolate 3. How do decaying organisms in a swamp help the next generation of organisms? A. The decaying organisms put food into the soil B. The decaying organisms put water into the soil C. The decaying organisms put minerals back into the soil 4. Why do we call desert an ecosystem? A. Because it has parts that work together for a purpose. B. Because it is a system where living and nonliving things interact. C. It has herbivores and carnivores living together. 5. Define habitat. A. A system where living and nonliving things interact B. It has parts that work together for a purpose C. A place where an organism lives in an ecosystem 6. What is a decomposer? A. An organism like a bird that eats nuts and berries B. An organism like Rusty that eats cat food C. An organism like an insect that eats dead remains of animals 7. Who is an omnivore? A. An animal that eats plants B. An animal that eats both plants and animals C. An animal that eats other animals 8. Which of these is the main energy source for life on Earth? A. Sunlight B. Water C. Moonlight 9. _________________ are also popularly known as ‘rainforests of the sea’? A. Fishes B. Jellies C. Coral reefs D. Crabs 10. How many types of ecosystems are there? A. Two B. Four C. Six 11. Temperature, light, air, water, soil, and climate are all __________ parts of the environment. A. Biotic B. Abiotic C. Boreal D. Living 12. Choose the phrase that correctly finishes this statement: “A species is…” A. A specific part of the abiotic environment. B. A way of describing all the living parts of an ecosystem. C. A group of organisms that can successfully mate with each other and reproduce. D. Part of the natural decomposing materials in soil. 13. Ecology is the study of the: A. Abiotic parts of the environment, such as climate, air, and soil. B. Biotic parts of the environment, such as animals and plants. C. Interactions between organisms. D. Interactions between organisms as well as the interactions between organisms and their environment. 14. When populations share their environment and interact with populations of other species, it is called a: A. Biome B. Ecoprovince C. Community D. Species E. Ecotone 15. Space where an organism lives and the role an organism plays within its ecosystem is referred to as a: A. Sampling B. Community C. Population D. Niche E. Biosphere 16. An organism that creates its own food is called: A. A producer B. A consumer C. A scavenger D. A decomposer E. A carnivore 17. A consumer is: A. An organism that produces its own food. B. An organism that does not need food to survive. C. An abiotic organism. D. An organism that cannot produce its own food. 18. The largest percentage of solar energy that penetrates the atmosphere of the Earth is used to: A. Heat the atmosphere and the Earth’s surface. B. Carry on photosynthesis. C. Generate winds. D. Heat and evaporate water. 19. A species of plant or animal that is facing imminent extinction or extirpation is said to be: A. Extinct B. Extirpated C. Endangered D. Threatened E. Special concern 20. Which of the following is NOT an abiotic factor? A. Decomposer B. Light intensity. C. Wind D. Humidity E. Temperature   SECTION B (40 MARKS) – ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS 21. Elaborate on any four characteristics of hazardous wastes (4mks) 22. What are the four causes of soil erosion? (4mks) 23. Give four benefits of recycling e-wastes (4mks) 24. Explain the components of environmental literacy? (4mks) 25. What is the primary benefit of wetlands? (4mks) 26. Identify four reasons for increased amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere(4mks) 27. What are four requirements expected of a person seeking a license to transport waste in Kenya? (4mks) 28. Identify four hazards found in a garage (4mks) 29. Explain four environmental issues arising from the use of wood fuel. (4mks) 30. What is the Justifications for the need to teach environmental literacy in Kenya(4mks)   SECTION C: 40 MARKS – ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS 31. Following our use of natural resources, it is inevitable that wastes are produced. Explain ways in which water is contaminated today (10mks) 32. Deforestation is a double edged sword. Explain the truth of this statement hence showing how development and growing population has caused deforestation and its effects on environment (10mks) 33. Highlight some of hazard reduction programmes put in place to mitigate occurrence of a disasters caused by draught in Kenya (10mks) 34. Discuss the roles of National Environmental Management Authority (NEMA) (10mks)

SECTION A. (20 MARKS) Each Question Carries 1 Mark. 1. The following are potential sources of capital except one. A. Cash B. Debt. C. Leasing. D. equity. 2. Which of the following is not a factor of production? A. Land. B. Capital C. vehicle D. Labor 3. An important part of market analysis involves collecting———-information. A. Confidential. B. Geographic. C. Employee. D. Property. 4. Business goals are achieved by means of marketing ———– A. Profit. B. sales people. C. strategies. D. sales. 5. Products that are appealing to majority of consumers are sold through ……..marketing efforts. A. Segmented. B. mass. C. demographic. D. psychographic. 6. Which of the following is not a basic need? A. Food. B. Shelter. C. Capital D. Clothing. 7. …………is the future you desire to create. A. Goal. B. Vision. C. Mission. D. prediction. 8. ……. Is an intangible asset. A. Good will. B. equipment. C. Inventory. D. Buildings. 9. Which factor do entrepreneurs consider before taking debt? A. Liquidity. B. Depreciation. C. Equity. D. Inventory. 10. Entrepreneurship is an………..and a science. A. Theory. B. Art. C. Business. D. Technique. 11. Entrepreneurs are either born or……… A. Trained. B. made. C. taught. D. influenced. 12. A product idea is said to be feasible if it is…… A. Saleable. B. durable. C. competitive. D. expensive. 13. The following are business social responsibility initiatives except. A. Ethics. B. economic. C. financial. D. Environmental. 14. ……………..is a method of book keeping? 15. A………………audit is a review of cash flows and expenses of a business. 16. ………………is entrepreneurship at the workplace. 17. Why are records necessary in business management? 18. What’s the meaning of market diversification? 19. Price buyers are customers who buy goods due to ……………………. 20. ……………entrepreneurship is a form of entrepreneurship whose objective is to serve a social purpose.   SECTION B. (40 marks) Answer all questions 21. What are the factors that have contributed to the growth of entrepreneurship in Kenya? (4 marks) 22. State any four sources of business ideas. (4 marks). 23. Outline four factors that may hinder entrepreneurship in Kenya. (4 marks). 24. Highlight the role of an entrepreneur in production of goods or services. (4 marks). 25. Identify any four gaps that may lead to creation of a business opportunity. (4 marks). 26. What are the four components of a business plan? (4 marks). 27. Highlight the measures government is undertaking to promote entrepreneurship activities. (4 marks). 28. What are the causes of business failure? (4 marks). 29. Outline the four methods of classifying resources. (4 marks). 30. Identify any for types of sourcing. (4 marks).   SECTION C – (40 MARKS). Answer any two questions 31. An entrepreneur opened a supermarket in a rural set up and closed down after six months. What could have been the cause? (20 marks). 32. Explain any five methods that entrepreneurs can use to increase the sales of an enterprise. (20 marks). 33. Discuss meaning and four forms of market feasibility and describe the four steps involved in marketing analysis. (20 marks)

CANDIDATE INSTRUCTIONS 1. You have TWO HOURS to answer all the questions. 2. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. 3. The paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. 4. Do not write on the question paper. 5. A separate answer booklet will be provided. SECTION A (20 MARKS) Answer all the questions in this section. Each question is 1 mark. 1. Which one of the following is not part of the communication process? a. Sender b. Message c. Receiver d. None of the above 2. Which one of the following is a verbal means of communication? a. Speech b. Maps c. Signs d. Behavior 3. Identify among the choices given, what is not a mode of communication a. Interpersonal Communication b. Intrapersonal Communication c. Interpretive Communication d. Presentational Communication 4. Which among the following factors should not be considered when developing a communication strategy? a. Business location. b. Target audience. c. Theory to be used. d. Group dynamics. 5. Which of the following is verbal communication for interview? a. Clapping b. Maintaining eye contact c. Listening attentively d. Smiling and nodding appropriately 6. Identify inappropriate type of interview to be used? a. Face-to-face interview b. Panel interview c. Text interview d. Telephone interview 7. Why are interviews important for job opportunities? a. Increase goodwill. b. Both interviewee and interviewer get to know each other well. c. Chance to know more about the personality of the interviewee. d. It’s a formality 8. Which of the following is an informal type of communication pathway? a. Vertical communication. b. Grapevine communication. c. Upward communication. d. Horizontal communication. 9. How can you establish a communication pathway in an organization? a. Planning a budget. b. Measuring the effectiveness of the pathways. c. Improving horizontal and vertical communications. d. Ensuring mutual understanding 10. Which one of the following is a non-communication process factor a. Sender b. Message c. Receiver d. Time 11. The following are characteristics of effective communication except one. Which one? a. Coherence b. Clear c. Concise d. Shallow 12. Communication pathways are maintained and reviewed by? a. Researching on the communication pathways. b. Clearly setting the objectives and plan. c. Addressing the business plan. d. Budgeting 13. Which of the following is not a stage in the strategy development process? a. Formulation b. Articulation c. Interviewing d. Budgeting 14. Why do organizations need to articulate and model their communication techniques? a. To cover the purpose, scope and strength of the business. b. To establish a foundation of developing workforce. c. To minimize strengths and maximize weakness. d. It’s a formality 15. One of the following practices is inappropriate during interviews. a. Asking for Clarification b. Recording interviews c. Perusing through your documents d. Listening keenly 16. Which of these is required by an interviewee before an interview? a. Researching into the company b. Researching into the industry c. Preparing for any anticipated question d. Preparing personal appearance 17. The following types of questions are recommended for an interview apart from? a. Leading questions b. Probing questions c. Closed questions d. Open questions 18. Listening in an interview entail? a. Listening to the hidden questions b. Listening to the actual question c. Asking for clarification d. All of the above 19. The following activities should be done by groups to ensure their existence except one, which one is it? a. Identifying and evaluating what is occurring amongst them. b. Making decisions on their behaviors and language use. c. Expressing individual contributions on an issue. d. Making rules and regulations 20. In case of interruption of group meetings/discussions, the facilitator should not a. Let the group decide. b. Make use of ground rules. c. Be honest. d. Take sides. SECTION B: [40 MARKS] Answer all the questions in this section 21. What is the difference between Oral and Written communication (2 Marks) 22. Give two essentials/principles of effective communication (2 Marks) 23. State six (7) barriers of communication. (7 Marks) 24. What is the difference between vertical and horizontal communication? (4 Marks) 25. Explain two steps to take in maintaining communication pathways (4 Marks) 26. Identify 3 types of conflicts in an organization. (3 Marks) 27. Explain 3 importance of agenda in a meeting. (3 Marks) 28. State 3 factors to consider for an effective communication technique (3 Marks) 29. Explain 4 advantages of using banners as a way of communication (4 Marks) 30. With an aid of a diagram, discuss the communication process (8 Marks) SECTION C: [40 MARKS] Answer ALL questions in this section 1. When questioning a client, it is important to know which questions to ask for right information generation. Describe four types of questions you would use ask. (4 marks) 2. What are the FIVE roles of communication in an organization . (5 marks) 3. Describe four advantages of effective communication in an organization. (4 marks) 4. Customer satisfaction is key for the development and progress of any institution, what are five importance of customer satisfaction. (5 marks) 5. List any Four essentials/Principles of effective communication (4 marks) 6. Holding meeting in an organization is important, in your own knowledge what are four (4) advantages of holding a meeting in an organization. (4 marks) 7. State three reasons for using visual aids to communicate (3 marks) 8. List Four ways of overcoming barriers to effective communication (4 marks) 9. As a graduate seeking employment identify four (4) techniques that are important in preparation for an interview (4 marks) 10. Outline three characteristics of effective communication (3 mark

INSTRUCTIONS In this assessment, you will be required to answer questions: 1. The paper consists of TWO sections A and B 2. You are allocated 2 hours to attempt all the questions 3. You are provided with a separate answer booklet 4. Do not write on the question paper 5. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets ( ) SECTION A (10MARKS) (Answer All Questions, Each Question carries 1 Mark) 1. Which best describes an ecosystem? A. It has parts that work together for a purpose. B. It is a system where living and nonliving things interact. C. It has animals that work together to create food. 2. Animals need these two things that travel through a food chain: A. Pants and animals B. Nutrients and minerals C. Popcorn and chocolate 3. How do decaying organisms in a swamp help the next generation of organisms? A. The decaying organisms put food into the soil B. The decaying organisms put water into the soil C. The decaying organisms put minerals back into the soil 4. Why do we call desert an ecosystem? A. Because it has parts that work together for a purpose. B. Because it is a system where living and nonliving things interact. C. It has herbivores and carnivores living together. 5. Define habitat. A. A system where living and nonliving things interact B. It has parts that work together for a purpose C. A place where an organism lives in an ecosystem 6. What is a decomposer? A. An organism like a bird that eats nuts and berries B. An organism like Rusty that eats cat food C. An organism like an insect that eats dead remains of animals 7. Who is an omnivore? A. An animal that eats plants B. An animal that eats both plants and animals C. An animal that eats other animals 8. Which of these is the main energy source for life on Earth? A. Sunlight B. Water C. Moonlight 9. _________________ are also popularly known as ‘rainforests of the sea’? A. Fishes B. Jellies C. Coral reefs D. Crabs 10. How many types of ecosystems are there? A. Two B. Four C. Six   SECTION B (40 MARKS) – Answer all questions 11. Elaborate on any four characteristics of hazardous wastes (4mks) 12. What are the four causes of soil erosion? (4mks) 13. Give four benefits of recycling e-wastes (4mks) 14. Explain the components of environmental literacy? (4mks) 15. What is the primary benefit of wetlands? (4mks) 16. Identify four reasons for increased amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere(4mks) 17. What are four requirements expected of a person seeking a license to transport waste in Kenya? (4mks) 18. Identify four hazards found in a garage (4mks) 19. Explain four environmental issues arising from the use of wood fuel. (4mks) 20. What is the Justifications for the need to teach environmental literacy in Kenya(4mks

CANDIDATES INSTRUCTIONS This assessment requires you to demonstrate competence against unit of competency: WRITTEN ASSESSMENT In this assessment, you will be required to answer written questions. 1. The paper consists of Three sections: A, B and C 2. You are allocated Two (2) hours to attempt all the questions. 3. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. 4. Do not write on the question paper SECTION A (20 MARKS) (1mark for each correct answer) Answer All Questions in This Section 1. Rules of behavior that guide the decisions of an organization are known as: a) Operating procedures. b) Business guidelines. c) Code of ethics. d) Vision statements. 2. An individual who shows consideration and respect for others in the workplace is viewed as: a) Professional. b) Dedicated. c) Detailed. d) Ethical 3. An employee can best organize daily duties by: a) Answering the phone. b) Delegating all tasks. c) Preparing a priority list. d) Reading e-mail. 4. Which of the following is not a self-management skill? a) Problem solving b) Bargaining c) Understanding self d) Confidence building 5. Which among the following is not a language skill? a) Listening b) Negotiation c) Speaking d) Writing 6. Which of the following is the best definition of empathy? a) Feeling what someone else is feeling. b) Feeling sorry for another. c) Feeling sympathy for another. d) Feeling that you want to help another. 7. Skimming is done through the following except? a) Noting bold prints. b) Reading just few words. c) Reading to find specific information. d) Familiarizing with reading materials 8. Which one of the following is not a strategy of effective time management? a) Focusing on the task at hand. b) Prioritizing which tasks are more important. c) Texting with your friends. d) None of the above. 9. Examples of social stressors are? a) Financial problem b) Divorce c) Loss of loved ones d) All of the above 10. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a team? a) Minimal and formal knowledge sharing b) Collective output c) Individual and collective responsibility d) Fluid dimension to roles and tasks. 11. Studying the future, arranging the means for dealing with it is part of the process of? a) Organizing b) Commanding c) Controlling d) Planning 12. Which of the following would not normally be considered as part of a person’s work habits? a) Commuting b) Promoting setting c) Sending and receiving mail d) Organizing 13. Which of the following is not one of the job-related experiences for successful job performance? a) Innovation b) Knowledge c) Skills d) Behavior 14. Why is coaching and mentoring important for an organization? a) It increases employee morale b) All of these c) It helps in the employee growth and development d) Help an employee to adjust to company culture 15. The basic functions of the management process include all the following except a) Planning b) Outsourcing c) Organizing d) Leading 16. A problem-solving method in which each side gives up something of value to help solve a problem is called a) Compromise b) Consensus c) Constraint d) Problem-solving 17. A written statement of policies and principles that guides employee behavior is called a) Code of ethics b) Word of ethics c) Ethical dilemma d) No of the above 18. Which of the following shapes ethical behavior in organization? a) Supervisor behavior b) Organizational culture c) Code of ethics d) All of the above 19. A hostile situation resulting from opposing views is called a) Brainstorming b) Compromise c) Conflict d) Consensus 20. What is intuitive decision based on? a) Guesswork b) Gambling c) Instinct d) Rationality   SECTION B (40 MARKS) Answer All Questions in This Section 1. Employability skills can be divided into soft and hard skills. What is the difference between soft skills and hard skills (2 marks) 2. A colleague at work has complained to you that she has stress. What are the four (3) sources of stress in a work place (4 marks) 3. What four (4) critical work habits do you need to be a successful employee (4 marks) 4. List five (5) importance of self-management (5 marks) 5. List (5) importance of leisure time (5 marks) 6. Distinguish between resource mobilization and resource utilization (4 marks) 7. Your colleague is said to have low self-esteem. Which are four (4) signs you are likely to observe in him/her at work place? (4 marks) 8. You have been employed in one of very well-known company. What are four (4) possible benefits of further training and career development? (4 marks) 9. Give any three strategies for developing and maintaining self-esteem at work (3 marks) 10. List any five (5) contributions of learning to the community (5 marks) SECTION C (40 MARKS) Answer Any Four Questions in This Section 1. Prepare a checklist on your strength, weakness and action plan on how to overcome your weakness. (10 marks) 2. Discuss at least five importance of leisure time (10 marks) 3. Discuss any five qualities of a good time manager (10 marks) 4. Explain five ways of seeking recognition at the workplace (10 marks) 5. Explain at least five contributions of learning to the community (10 marks