July 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE You have 3 hours to answer all the questions. The paper consists of two sections: A and B. Answer ALL questions in Section A and any Three Questions from section B. Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. A separate answer booklet will be provided. SECTION A (40 marks) Answer ALL the questions in this section 1. Define each of the following terms: (4 Marks) i) System ii) Information 2. State four components of an information system. (4 Marks) 3. Outline four items that should be included in the terms of reference document. (4 Marks) 4. Differentiate between management information system and decision support system. (4 Marks) 5. Explain four qualities of a good information system. (4 Marks) 6. An organization has acquired a new information system for use. Outline four factors that could have influenced this decision by the organization. (4 Marks) 7. List three file organization methods used in an information system. (3 Marks) 8. Differentiate between hard and soft properties of an information system. (2 Marks) 9. David used questionnaires to collect data for his research work. Outline three advantages of using this data collection tool. (3 Marks) 10. Outline any four disadvantages of prototyping. (4 Marks) 11. Distinguish between closed and open systems, citing an example in each case. (4 Marks)   SECTION B (60 Marks) Answer any THREE questions in this section. 12. a) A good information system enables perform operations of a business. Currently most businesses are operating using systems and the transition is rapidly increasing over time. Discuss five important characteristics of a system. (10 Marks) b) Describe each of the following types of systems: (10 Marks) i) Mechanistic; ii) Probabilistic; iii) Cybernetic; iv) Abstract; v) Physical. 13. a) Using well labelled diagram in case, describe five tools used system analysis. (10 Marks) b) Maintenance is a very critical phase in the system development lifecycle. Discuss five types of maintenance that can be used. (10 Marks) 14. a) Maringa Company has been running its operations in an old system. Over time, they have realized the need to monitor their operations in a clearer way with new strategies to perform the system change over. Explain four system changeover strategies that could be used. (8 Marks) b) Sid Group of companies has been intending to come up with a new system. The management has been curious to understand the steps that would be taken in developing system. Discuss the system development life cycle (SDLC) waterfall model using a diagram. (12 Marks) 15. a) Explain four types of system design used in system development. (8 Marks) b) Using well labelled diagram, discuss four methodologies used in system analysis and design. (12 Marks)

Perform System Analysis and Design March/April 2023 Past Paper – Click to view Perform System Analysis and Design Nov/Dec 2022 Past Paper – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE: Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. The candidates should answer the questions in English Section A (40 marks) Answer ALL the questions in this section. 1. Define a fragment in mobile application development. (2 Marks) 2. List five tools for developing mobile Apps. (5 Marks) 3. Outline two objectives for developing a mobile application. (2 Marks) 4. List six characteristics of a good mobile application. (6 Marks) 5. Discuss the importance of user interface in mobile applications.. (4 Marks) 6. Outline three differences between voice user interfaces (VUI) and Mobile App as used in the modern technology. (6 Marks) 7. Juma used plugins when developing a mobile application. Explain two purposes of plugins in this application. (4 Marks) 8. Explain look and feel features as applied in mobile application. (4 Marks) 9. Jael incorporated intents into a mobile application she was developing. Outline two benefits of using the intents. (4 Marks) 10. Mobile development IDEs combine developer tools under one GUI. List three typical features of such IDEs. (3 Marks)   Section B (60 marks) Answer any THREE questions in this section 11. (a) Outline four advantages of using SQLite database in an android application. (4 Marks) (b) Describe the three major mobile application development approaches that can be employed by a mobile application developer. (6 Marks) (c) Kim has been hired by TMZ Mobile App Ltd as a mobile software developer. Explain the five stages of mobile software development lifecycle he should follow when developing the apps. (10 Marks) 12. (a) Discuss about the designing the right user interface for mobile application. (10 Marks) (b) Explain each of the following terms as used in mobile application development: (i) Voice XML; (2 Marks) (ii) Gesture based UIs. (2 Marks) (c) Mark is developing a mobile application for a customer. Explain three challenges he is likely to face during development. (6 Marks) 13. (a) Explain Dynamic linking as used in mobile application development. (2 Marks) (b) Explain two design considerations in mobile for mobile apps. (4 Marks) (c) Every mobile application developer must know the architecture of the platform on which  his or her developed mobile app runs. In reference to this statement: (i) Describe four components of an android OS layered architecture. (8 Marks) (ii) Describe three methods that could be used during an Android activity lifecycle process. (6 Marks) 14. (a)List four items that are included in every Android project. (4 Marks) (b) Explain three limitations of Android in mobile application development. (6 Marks) (c) Differentiate between activity and service as used in mobile application. (4 Marks) (d) A student monitored an activity of a mobile application. Describe three loops he could use when monitoring. (6 Marks)

Mobile Application Development March/April 2023 Past Paper – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets () The paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer ALL questions in Section A and any THREE questions from section B in the answer booklet provided. Candidate to answer all questions in English. Section A (40 marks) Answer ALL the questions in this section. 1. Define the following terms as applied in graphical design. i. Typography; (2Marks) ii. Typeface; (2 Marks) iii. Tracking; (2 Marks) 2. Principles of graphic design are key before one performs graphic design, as an expert highlight six principles that are applied in graphic design. (6 Marks) 3. List five types of printing designs used in graphic design that enable visual communication of the design to the audience. (5 Marks) 4. Identify four basic application areas of a mult-page layout in the modern graphic design technology. (4 Marks) 5. Designing of graphics will depend on the techniques used, as an expert state four types of typography techniques. (4 Marks) 6. Identify four techniques that can be used to manipulate images in order to make the design attractive to the client. (4 Marks) 7. Graphic design software is used for creating and editing images highlight five software that are used in graphic design. (5 Marks) 8. A designer requires design equipment in his workshop. Explain two importance of scanner in graphic design workshop. (2 Marks) 9. Explain two roles of anatomy in graphic design (4 Marks) Section B (60 marks) Answer any THREE questions in this section. 10. a) Diana has approached you to design graphics on his t-shirts that he would use for the public rally, explain three elements of graphic design you might decide to use. (6 Marks) b) Describe three characteristics of size as an element of graphics that the designer may consider during designing (6 Marks) b) Discuss four types of electronic image file as used in graphic design. (8 Marks) 11. a) In graphic design one of the important elements is to apply typography techniques, explain four classification of serif typography that a designer may apply. (8 Marks) b) Explain four differences between print media and digital media as used in graphic design. (8 Marks) c) Colours have immediate impact on the viewers and address their sub-consciousness. Discuss additive and subtractive colours in graphic design. (4 Marks) 12. a) Explain three types of printing technologies that a designer may use to print his design. (6 marks) b) Describe four ways in which copyright supports artists when coming up with their new innovation in the modern world. (8 Marks) c) Discuss three design principles that are used for arranging or organizing design elements in graphic design. (6 Marks) 13. a) A student in class was arguing that graphic design is outdated and is not important in the modern society, as an expert in this area, explain three types of graphic design in the modern society. (6 Marks) b) James as a graphic designer is developing an advertisement poster for a certain institution. Describe three categories of colours that he will use in the design. (6 Marks) b) Discuss four tools that are used In Adobe Illustrator software during graphic design. (8 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE: Maximum marks for each question are indicated in (). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer ALL questions in section A and THREE questions from section B in the answer booklet provided. Candidate should answer questions in English. SECTION A (40 Marks) Answer ALL the questions in this section. 1. Outline three causes of system failure. (3 Marks) 2. Troubleshooting is a task performed during ICT System Support. Explain why it isimportant. (2 Marks) 3. When performing ICT System Support, auditing is one of the elements to be considered. As an expert in this area, describe three existing ICT Components and Infrastructure that needs to be audited. (6 Marks) 4. Safety precaution measures should be put in place when performing ICT System Support. Identify four such measures. (4 Marks) 5. When carrying out system support, software related problems are likely to occur. Discuss any four of such problems. (8 Marks) 6. An ICT Policy is used when performing ICT Support System. Explain its significance. (2 Marks) 7. User training plays an important role in System Support. Describe two importance of user training. (4 Marks) 8. Environmental factors should be considered when carrying out System Support. As an expert, explain any two of these environmental factors. (4 Marks) 9. One of the important elements to consider in performing ICT System Support is tools used to diagnose and fix problems, mention five examples of such tools used. (5 Marks) 10. End users play a significant role in system support. Explain one role of end user that may lengthen the life of an ICT system. (2 Marks) SECTION B (60 marks) Answer any THREE questions in this section. 11. (a) Tom has approached you as an expert to help solve a problem with his laptop that keeps on restarting. Explain five likely causes of this problem. (10 Marks) (b) A company intends to set up an office for the ICT staff. Discuss five ergonomic considerations they should make when setting up this office. (10 Marks) 12. (a) Outline five considerations when troubleshooting a printer. (5 Marks) (b) While using ICT equipment and devices, hardware related problems may be experienced. Discuss five hardware related problems that a company is likely to face. (10 Marks) (c) You have been requested resolve issues in a computer that keeps on locking its screen. Outline five conditions likely to have led to this problem. (5 Marks) 13. (a) Differentiate between operating system and platform. (4 Marks) (b)Nandy Tea Company has approached you as an expert in ICT System Support to carry out Audit on their existing ICT components and Infrastructure. Demonstrate five key steps that you may employ. (10 Marks) (c) An ICT staff is likely to experience health related issues due to their work environment. Explain three health issues the staff may experience. (6 Marks) 14. (a) While using her computer, Joyce noticed her computer could not display. Outline six possible causes that would have led to the issue. (6 Marks) (b) You been contracted to tailor a user training program for a company. (i) Explain four considerations to make when developing a training program. (8 Marks) (ii) Explain three approaches for training the end users. (6 marks)

Perform ICT System Support March/April 2023 Past Paper – Click to view Perform ICT System Support Nov/Dec 2022 Past Paper – Click to view

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. The candidates should answer the questions in English Section A (40 marks) Answer ALL the questions in this section 1. Define the term computer security. (2 Marks) 2. List any three physical threats to a computer system. (3 Marks) 3. State three ways that you can use to prevent Brute Force attacks. (3 Marks) 4. State any three ways attackers may use to identify an individual password. (3 Marks) 5. List three ways data from within the organization may be exposed or accessed by unauthorized entity. (3 Marks) 6. Explain each of the following terms as used in computer security. (10 Marks) i) Firewall ii) Hacking iii) Threat iv) Vulnerability v) Risk 7. Explain three classifications of computer hackers. (6 Marks) 8. Outline four important functions that information security performs for an organization. (4 Marks) 9. Outline two reasons why it is important to use a VPN when accessing internet using a public network. (2 Marks) 10. Differentiate between Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing. (4 Marks) Section B (60 marks) Answer any THREE questions in this section 11. a) Cyber security poses a major threat to many organizations. Explain five essentials cyber security measures a business firm should consider. (10 Marks) b) A rise in hybrid working has made businesses more vulnerable than ever to cybercrime. Discuss any five common threats to an organization. (10 Marks) 12. a) Define identity Theft as used in computer security. (3 Marks) b) Outline any seven ways one can use to prevent identity theft. (7 Marks) c) Discuss the following types of malicious ware. (10 Marks) i) Viruses ii) Trojans iii) Worms iv) Ransomware v) Spyware 13. a) Explain five ways of preventing man-In-The-Middle (MITM) attack. (10 Marks) b) Discuss steps for establishing an Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) connection. (10 Marks) 14. a) Different types of security testing offer a reliable means for organizations to strengthen the cyber security posture. State any six types of computer Security Testing. (6 Marks) b) Information security is a key factor in an organization. Explain three main objectives of Information security. (6 Marks) c) Discuss four elements of an Information Security Policy. (8 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES: The paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. Answer questions as per instructions in each section You are provided with a separate answer booklet Candidates should answer the questions in English Section A (20 marks) Answer ALL questions in this section 1. Which of the following contains a list of network operating systems? (1 Mark) A. Microsoft Windows Server 2008, Novell NetWare, Mac OS X B. Mac OS X, Red Velvet Cate (OS 11), Tizen OS C. Red Velvet Cate (OS 11) ¸ Tizen OS, Microsoft Windows Server 2008 D. Novell NetWare, Red Velvet Cate (OS 11), Kai OS 3.0 2. Which of the following information is not part of the Process Control Block (PCB)? (1 Mark) A. The CPU scheduling information for the process. B. Memory management information regarding the process. C. Possible accounting information for this process. D. Operating system information 3. Which one of the following are the four sections which a program can be divided into when it is loaded into the memory? (1 Mark) A. Word, text, data, page B. Stack, heap, text, data C. Byte, text, data, word D. Bit, data, text, word 4. Select the statement that best defines a thread among the statements listed below? (1 Mark) A. An entity that represents the basic unit of work to be implemented in a system B. An abstract data type that is used for process synchronization. C. A single sequence stream within in a process D. A data structure maintained by the Operating System for every process. 5. Which one of the following is a pre-emptive scheduling algorithm? (1 Mark) A. First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) Scheduling B. Shortest-Job-Next (SJN) Scheduling C. Priority Scheduling D. Shortest Remaining Time Next 6. Under the normal mode of operation, identify the right sequence through which a process may utilize a resource? (1 Mark) A. Request – Use – Release B. Request – Hold – Use – Release C. Hold – Use – Release D. Request – Hold – Release 7. The following are advantages of demand paging in memory management, which one is not? (1 Mark) A. Large virtual memory. B. The amount of processor overhead for handling page interrupts is less than for simple paging C. More efficient use of memory. D. There is no limit on degree of multiprogramming. 8. Which one of the following are the three approaches through which the CPU communicates with hardware devices? (1 Mark) A. Special Instruction I/O, Batch Instruction I/O, Direct memory access (DMA)                                           B. Memory-mapped I/O, Batch Instruction I/O, Direct memory access (DMA) C. Batch Instruction I/O, Special Instruction I/O, Memory-mapped I/O D. Direct memory access (DMA), Memory-mapped I/O, Special Instruction I/O 9. What does rotational latency refer to in Disk Operations? (1 Mark) A. The time required to move the disk arm to the required track. B. The amount of time required for the desired sector to rotate around and come under the read-write head. C. The time required to move the data electronically from the disk to the computer D. The time required to move the heads from one cylinder to another, and for the heads to settle down after the move. 10. Which are the two functions that can be used to modify the value of semaphore? (1 Mark) A. Wait() and Run() B. Signal () and Exit() C. Wait() and Exit() D. Wait() and signal() 11. Which one of the following is the most accurate description of monitors? (1 Mark) A. An abstract data type that is used for process synchronization. B. An integer variable which indicate the number of resources available in the system C. A queue for which multiple processes are waiting for a particular I/O device. D. Mechanisms an operating system provides to allow the processes to manage shared data. 12. Which are the important process scheduling queues maintained by the Operating System? (1 Mark) A. Job queue, Wait Queue, Device queues B. Wait Queue, Device queues, Ready queue C. Ready queue, Device queues, Job queue D. Device queues, Wait Queue, Ready queue 13. Which of the following is not a way reimage helps in operating system recovery (1 Mark) A. Reimage repairs and replaces all critical Windows system files needed to run and restart correctly, without harming your user data. B. Reimage restores compromised system settings and registry values to their default Microsoft settings. C. Reimage reverses the damage done to the operating system. D. Reimage creates an image of the operating system for effective recovery in case of a serious problem 14. The following are reasons for process termination in a computer system except? (1 Mark) A. Sprung by existing process B. Data misuse C. Normal completion D. Time limit exceeded 15. When does a page fault occur? (1 Mark) A. When resources are not available B. When a deadlock occurs. C. When the page is not present in memory D. When buffering occurs 16. Which of these files contain a list of file names and their related information? (1 Mark) A. Ordinary files B. Special files C. Directory files D. System files 17. Which of the following are methods of accessing files? 1 Mark) A. Sequential access, Direct/Random access, Indexed sequential access B. Direct/Random access, Indexed Serial Access, Scheduled Access C. Indexed sequential access, Indexed Serial Access, Unscheduled access D. Indexed Serial Access, Direct/Random access, Scheduled Access 18. Which one of the following is a list of the three types of addresses used in a program before and after memory is allocated? (1 Mark) A. Symbolic addresses, Relative addresses, Page Address B. Page Address, Physical addresses, Symbolic addresses C. Symbolic addresses, Physical addresses, Relative addresses. D. Physical addresses, Relative addresses, Page Address 19. Which of the following statements describes Low level formatting? A. Low level formatting is done by the end users B. Disk must not be formatted before storing data. C. Low level

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Maximum Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. The paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. Candidate should answer the questions in English. Section A (40 marks) Answer ALL the questions in this section. 1. How do we refer to a function that returns no value in C programming? (1 Mark) A. Data type function B. Calling function C. Main function D. Void function 2. How is a comment written on a single line in C programming? (1 Mark) A. /* my comment B. //* my comment // C. // my comment D. /* my comment *// 5. Which of the following characters is used to make a line break in a C program? (1 Mark) A. \b B. \c C. \r D. \n 6. What kind of files are created in C programming? (1 Mark) A. Images B. Executables C. Sources D. Text files 7. What name is used to refer to the program that translates a low-level language to the binary language? (1 Mark) A. Loader B. Assembler C. Translator D. Linker 8. A declared variable is held in which memory? (1 Mark) A. RAM B. ROM C. Hard disk D. Microprocessor 9. Which of the following is not a valid variable name in C programming? (1 Mark) A. int fryr; B. float perte; C. int variable_count; D. int $main; 10. _________is the result of arithmetic expression 20%10 if used in a C program. (1 Mark) A. 2 B. 0.08 C. 0 D. 200 11. What is the output of the following C program? (1 Mark) #include <stdio.h> int main() { printf(“COME! %d \n”, x); return 0; } A. COME! x; B. COME! followed by a random value C. Compilation error D. COME! 12. After the operation res = (16/5) -3, what will “res” be equal to when executed in a C software? (1 Mark) A. 0 B. -3 C. 0,6 D. 3 13. After these operations are done in C programming, what will “res” be equal to? (1 Mark) int A = 5; res = 5 + A++; res += 2 + A; A. 9 B. 17 C. 12 D. 18 14. How many times do we get through the following loop written using C language? (1 Mark) int c = 10; do{ c++; printf(“Hello World\n”); } while(c < 10); A. 0 B. 1 C. 9 D. 10 15. What happens after a return statement in C language? (1 Mark) A. The function stops and returns the indicated result B. The function continues and returns the indicated result C. The function continues and returns no result D. The function calls another function 16. What is a global variable as applied in C language? (1 Mark) A. A variable that accessible everywhere B. A variable that can accept any type (int, float, char…) C. A variable declared in the main function D. A variable that is shown as a prototype 17. Which of these data types in C has a variable size? (1 Mark) A. int B. struct C. float D. double 18. How is a standard library included in C programming? (1 Mark) A. #include <windows.h> B. #include “windows.h” C. #include [windows.h] D. #include {windows.h} 19. In which case the return statement is not mandatory? (1 Mark) A. When the function takes no input parameters B. When the function return void C. When the function must return 0 D. When a function has to produce a value 20. Which conversion is correct regarding the size of the data types? (1 Mark) A. char > int > float B. int > char > float C. char < int < double D. double > char > int   Section B (40 marks) Answer ALL the questions in this section. 21. Describe two types of high-level language translators used in computer programming. (4 Marks) 22. Describe four programming approaches as applied in C language. (4 Marks) 23. Explain each of the following types of program development methodologies: a. Agile b. Crystal c. Rapid application development d. Waterfall development 24. State four differences between client-side scripting and server-side scripting.(4 Marks) 25. Explain the use of each of the following terms as used in C programming: (4 Marks) a) Scanf() b) Printf() c) Keyword d) variable 27. Outline four rules used when naming identifiers in C programming. (4 Marks) 28. Explain two importance of generating a user manual for a program. (4 Marks) 29. Distinguish between a physical and a logical Data Flow Diagram. (4 Marks) 30. Write an HTML table tag sequence that outputs the following: (4 Marks) 100 pcs 100 500 10 pcs 5 50   Section C (40 marks) Answer any two questions in this section. 31. a) Discuss the seven stages of program development life cycle. (14 Marks) b) Write a C program that uses a FOR loop type of control structure to display number 1 to 10. (6 Marks) 32. a) Draw a flowchart for a program that can be used to prompt the user to enter two numbers, find the sum and average of the two numbers and then display the output on the screen. (6 Marks) b) Write a pseudocode that would prompt the user to enter the Length and Width of a rectangle, calculate the Area and Perimeter, then display the result. (8 Marks) c) With the aid of flowcharts, distinguish between the IF statement and IF…ELSE statement. (6 Marks) 33. a) Describe five factors one should consider when selecting a programming language. (10 Marks) b) Explain the structure of a C program. (10 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE Maximum marks for each question are indicated in brackets ( ). This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. Candidate should answer the questions in English. Section A: (20 marks) Answer ALL the questions in this section. 1. ____________ is an attribute that uniquely identifies an entity in a relational database system. (1 mark) A. Unique key B. Primary key C. Foreign key D. Null key 2. Which of the following is not an output of the query h??d? (1 mark) A. head B. heed C. Heard D. Hoed 3. Another name for a row in a relational database table is a ______. (1 mark) A. Tuple B. Domain. C. Degree. D. Cardinality 4. Which command activates the current query when executed? (1 mark) A. Show table B. List box C. Cross tab D. Run. 5. A data type used when inserting images into a table is a ___________. (1 mark) A. OLE B. Memo C. Picture D. Look up 6. ________ is not a source of data for a report. (1 mark) A. Form. B. Table. C. View. D. Query. 7. “…”at the end of a field property box represents ______________. (1 mark) A. Make button. B. Continuation. C. Expression builder. D. Open button. 8. __________ is not a property of number data type. (1 mark) A. Allow zero length. B. Format C. Caption. D. Input mask. 9. A _________ view allows addition of controls to a form. (1 mark) A. Datasheet. B. Form. C. Design. D. Wizard. 10. Which of the relationships cannot be implemented by a relational DBMS? (1 mark) A. one to many. B. many to many C. many to one. D. one to one. 11. In MS Access, the maximum length of characters for a text data type is ________. (1 mark) A. 64 B. 256 C. 128 D. 255 12. A collection of related files is called a _____________. (1 mark) A. Database B. Table C. Record D. Form 13. Microsoft Access 2007 saves files using _______ file extension. (1 mark) A. .mdb B. .xlsx C. .accdb D. ,docx 14. A primary key included in another table is referred to as a_______ key. (1 mark) A. Foreign B. Super C. Candidate. D. Source. 15. A data type that stores logical value in MS Access is a ___________. (1 mark) A. True/False. B. OR C. Yes/No D. On/ Off. 16. A _______ is used to add logic to a database and automate repetitive tasks to create a more usable interface. (1 mark) A. Macro. B. Module. C. Query. D. Form. 17. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a primary key? (1 mark) A. Unique B. Not null. C. Required. D. Redundant. 18. The following are parts of a query design window except ________. (1 mark) A. Data type. B. Field C. Condition. D. Table. 19. An operator that returns records if only one of two or more given conditions is true is called a _____. (1 mark) A. OR. B. NOT C. XOR. D. NAND. 20. Which one of the following is not a database operation? (1 mark) A. Insert. B. Transform. C. Update. D. Select. Section B (40 marks) Answer ALL the questions in this section. 21. Define the term index as used in databases. (2 marks) 22. Outline four functions of a Database Management System Software (DBMS). (4 marks) 23. Duke uses a hierarchical model for data storage. Explain two challenges he is likely to encounter with this database. (4 marks) 24. Mary created a form for her database. Outline four uses of this form. (4 marks) 25. Andrew has been hired as a database administrator in a company. Explain five roles he is likely to play. (5 marks) 26. Explain each of the following types of queries: a) Update (2 marks) b) Append. (2 marks) 27. Distinguish between bound and unbound controls in a database form. (2 marks) 28. Describe two components of a database system. (4 marks) 29. James created a report using design view. Describe two sections of the report where he could have added controls. (4 marks) 30. Table 1 shows data stored by a car selling company. Use it to answer the questions that follow: (a) Write a statement entered in the criteria row of a query used to select all white cars. (2 marks) (b) Write a statement entered in the criteria row of a query used to select all cars whose make start with letter ‘m’. (2 marks) 31. Classify each of the following DBMS software as either server or desktop software. MS Access, Paradox, Wamp, MySQL, FoxPro, Oracle (3 marks) Section C (40 marks) Answer any TWO questions in this section 32. (a) Explain the function of a sub form in a database system. (4 marks) (b) Differentiate between an atomic and a multivalued attribute. (4 marks) (c) Janet created a one to many relationships between two tables. Describe three constraints she could have enforced to ensure consistency of data. (6 marks) (d) You have been contracted to create a library system for a certain college. In this system, a student is identified by a Student number and name. A student can borrow a maximum of three books. Each book is identified by an ISBN and BookName. Many students can borrow many books. Every borrow transaction is recorded using StudentNo, Date Borrowed and Return date. Identify the entities in this system and the respective attributes. (6 marks) 33. a) David intends to design a database system. Describe three models he is likely to design. (6 marks) b) A student intends to implement table 1 using MS Access. i) Identify the most appropriate data type for each attribute. (5 marks) ii) Name the most appropriate attribute for a primary key. (1 mark) c) FunTech company is replacing an existing file-based system with a database system. i) Explain two demerits of the current

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES: Maximum Marks for each question are indicated in the brackets. The paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C. Answer questions as per instructions in each section. You are provided with a separate answer booklet. Candidate should answer the questions in English. Section A (20 marks) Each question carries one mark. 1. Which among the following is an IP address that can be used for testing the internal protocol stack on a computer? (1 Mark) A. 192.168.100.1 B. 10.10.10.1 C. 127.0.0.1 D. 172.16.16.1 2. Most operating systems offers some means for a user to interact with the hardware parts and other resources. Which among these operating systems is usually deployed on networks to host applications that support multiple real-time access? (1 mark) A. Windows 11 B. Windows 7 Ultimate Edition C. Ubuntu Server Edition D. Android 11 3. Kelvin wanted to install a new printer to be shared by ten computers in a room. Which other network device might Kelvin need in his set up in order for the printer to work properly? (1 Mark) A. Device driver B. Repeater C. Switch D. Firewall 4. The term IANA stands for? (1 Mark) A. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority B. Internal Assigned Numbers Authority C. Internet Associative Numbers Authoritative D. Internal Associative Numbers Authority 5. Which among the following devices is considered to be a layer 3 device in networking? (1 Mark) A. Switch B. Router C. Network Interface Card D. Extender 6. ___________ is the name given to the type of data unit exchanged at the network layer in the OSI network model. (1 Mark) A. Packet B. Bit C. Frame D. Data 7. Which of the following commands in a windows computer is used to check the pathway that network data takes from source to destination? (1 Mark) A. PING B. TRACERT C. ARP -A D. PATH 8. The type of media used while setting up a network greatly affects its performance. Which among the following would be the most suitable medium to use in an environment which has got a lot of electric motors and damp conditions like a factory floor? (1 Mark) A. UTP Cables B. Coaxial cables C. Fibre Optic cables D. Wireless radio 9. Which of the following is an example of software that can be used for capturing network data for analysis during network testing? (1 Mark) A. Ping B. LAN Speed Test C. Telnet D. Wireshark 10. Identify the type of connector that is used to terminate a coaxial cable when networking. (1 Mark) A. RJ45 B. BNC C. SFP D. RJ11 11. _________________ is a type of cable termination that allows devices of different types, such as a computer and a printer, to interconnect and exchange communication. (1 Mark) A. Crossover B. Straight through C. Rollover D. Cross through 12. Which device from the list below, allows two different types of networks to interconnect and exchange communication? (1 Mark) A. Hub B. Switch C. Server D. Router 13. Which email application protocol allows one to retrieve copies of emails from the mail server without completely deleting them? (1 Mark) A. POP3 B. IMAPv4 C. SMTP D. HTTP 14. Agnes intends to configure her computer with a new IPv4 address. After assigning her computer with a new IP address, she proceeds to use the default subnet mask address 255.255.0.0. To which class does her computer’s IP address belong? (1 Mark) A. B. B. A C. D D. A 15. You have just installed Windows 10 on your computer and now are attempting to access your favourite networking support website. When you load the website’s address, you get an error that your computer is offline. What is your best next step? (1 Mark) A. Install a new copy of Windows 10. B. Download network rivers. C. Check the computer’s connection to the ethernet cable or Wi-Fi. D. Update the installed Windows 10. 16. What is the abbreviation given to the types of networks that are mostly found to operate within a town or city only? (1 Mark) A. PAN B. MAN C. WAN D. LAN 17. What is the maximum number of valid network hosts or nodes that a class C IPv4 default subnet mask can support? (1 Mark) A. 128 B. 16 C. 256 D. 254 18. While configuring a small office network, Ogutu decided to set up access security for all the wireless devices that needed connection to the office’s wireless router. Which type of wireless access authentication protocol would offer best security for the devices? (1 Mark) A. Password B. WEP C. WPA2 D. WPA 19. _________________ is the protocol used by computers on a network to resolve IP addresses to hostnames on the internet. (1 Mark) A. DNS B. HTTP C. SNMP D. TCP 20. In order to prepare a category 5e ethernet cable, Isaac had to use a certain tool. What is the name given to this tool that allowed him to properly terminate the cable in its connector? (1 Mark) A. Cable slicer B. Crimping tool C. Cable tester D. Voltmeter Section B (40 marks) Answer ALL questions in this section 21. In reference to network topologies, what is the major difference between a logical and a physical topology? (2 Marks) 22. Explain each of the following terms as used in computer networking: (3 Marks) a. Bandwidth b. Throughput c. Network 23. Give two features or characteristics that are coherently unique to local area networks. (2 Marks) 24. Outline three factors that determine the performance of any network that has been set up and is operational. (3 Marks) 25. Outline any three advantages that one would derive from setting up a network using a star physical topology. (3 Marks) 26. Using a well labelled diagram, describe parts of a fibre optic cable? (4 Marks) 27. Give the four layers of the TCP/IP network reference model starting from the highest o the lowest layer. (2 Marks) 28. Kiliwi intends to connect his customer to internet