November 25, 2022

Name the places in Kenya where tools attributed to Homoerectus have been found. Name the Late Stone Age tools that have been found in Kenya. Identify the types of evidence by which Kenya is proved to have been inhabited by humankind as far back as two million years ago or earlier. Tools attributed to Homohabilis were found in Koobi Fora near Lake Turkana. Hand axes, cleavers and other tools attributed to Homoerectus have been found at Olorgesailie near lake Magadi, Mtongwe near Mombasa, around lakes Victoria and Turkana and at Kariandusi. Tools associated with the late Stone age such as the Crescent, arrowheads, pottery, bone harpoons and ornamental egg shells have been found near lake Naivasha, lake Nakuru, Lukenya hills and Athi river. Microlith tools, axe heads, polished stones, stone bowels, platters and grinding stones have been discovered all over Kenya. Iron was used as far back as 270AD. Evidence of iron use have been found at Urewe near Ng‟iya in Siaya and in Kwale at the coast. Animals such as cattle, sheep and goats were domesticated in Kenya during the late stone age. Describe the lifestyle of early inhabitants of Kenya. Their language resembled that of the Khoisan. They originally were nomadic peoples. They gathered fruits and dug up tubers and roots to supplement their diet. They used stone tools, bows and arrows. They fished in rivers and lakes, using harpoons. They lived in rock shelters and caves. They made and used pottery. They buried or cremated their dead. Because of their nomadic lifestyle, they lived in seasonal camps and had no permanent homes. Being hunter-gatherers, they were very few, with very few belongings i.e. a variety of stone tools, bows and arrows. By the 7th century BC, they had learnt and practised fishing. They started living in semi permanent homes of rock shelters and caves. After acquiring the skill of food production, they settled down in more permanent homes and owned more materials such as grinding stones, pestles and stone bowels, pots and calabashes. They kept humpless long-horned cattle and grew food-crops like sorghum and millet. They passed on many customs such as circumcision, age-set organization, the taboo against eating fish, etc. There was a lot of cultural exchange between them and the new comers. These early inhabitants of Kenya may have been subdued by other stronger peoples, particularly the Bantu and the Nilotes through intermarriage, assimilation and war. Identify the communities that descended from early inhabitants of Kenya and much of east Africa. The Irak and Burungi of Tanzania, The Boni, Dahalo and Sanye of the River Tana basin. The Nguye and Okuro in western Kenya. Some remnants of these early inhabitants speak the languages of the groups near or with whom they live. E.g.  some speak Kikuyu while others speak Olmaa: the language of the Maasai. A majority of them speak Kalenjin dialects. The Kalenjin refer to them as Okiek while the Maasai call them Dorobo. In western Kenya, the Nguye and Okuro were totally assimilated by the Luo and Bantu groups. Identify three main linguistic groups into which African Kenyan communities are divided. The Bantu, The Nilotes, The Cushites. Of these groups, Bantu speakers form the largest group, followed by the Nilotes. The Cushites form the smallest.       THE CUSHITES Describe two groups of the Kenyan Cushites. The Southern Cushites, who moved southwards and settled in the highlands and plains of Kenya and northern Tanzania. They were later assimilated by the groups that found them in the region, such as the Irak, Boni, Burungi, Nilotes and Bantu. In Kenya, the only remaining Southern Cushites are the Dahalo, who live in the lower course of River Tana. The Eastern Cushites, who may have first settled in the Horn of Africa i.e. somewhere to the north of Kenya: either in Ethiopia or Somalia after migrating from Arabia in 1000BC. They then migrated into Somalia and reached northern Kenya in 1000AD. Identify Kenyan communities that make up the Eastern Cushites. The Borana, The Somali, The Oromo, Gabra, Ø The Rendile, Ø The Burji. The Eastern Cushites migrated into Kenya much later than the Southern Cushites.  Explain/trace the migration and settlement of the Oromo and Borana into Kenya. THE OROMO They arrived in Kenya in the 16th century and settled on the eastern shores of lake Turkana. They tried to move eastwards but were stopped by the Somali. They therefore moved south-eastwards and reached the coast in around 1600AD. In the area around Shungwaya, they confronted and forced the Mijikenda and Pokomo to leave. They occupied Malindi and Kilifi. Even before their arrival in Kenya, the Oromo had conflicts with the Somali, which continued up to early 20th century when both signed an agreement by which they settled in their present homeland. Today, the Oromo are found on the southern part of the river Tana and are neighbours to the Pokomo. THE BORANA The Borana, who are part of the Oromo-speaking people of southern Ethiopia, migrated into Kenya in the last quarter of the 19th and the first quarter of the 20th They were running away from the heavy taxation and rule of Menelik ii). They spread into Kenya and settled in Wajir, Marsabit and Moyale. About 1000AD, more Borana groups migrated into present-day Kenya from Somalia due to war between Somali nationalists and British colonialists. Explain the economic activities of the Borana during the pre-colonial period. They were nomadic pastoralists. They kept cattle, sheep, camels and goats. They traded with their neighbours and acquired grains in exchange for livestock. Their neighbours included the Pokomo and the Mijikenda. Those who settled along river Tana grew some food crops. Discuss the socio-Political organization of the Borana in the pre-colonial period. SOCIAL ORGANIZATION They were divided into clans. Each clan was led by elders. The residential section was the camp. The senior married man was recognized as the head of the camp. He was referred to as Abba Olla. His wife‟s hut was built on the extreme left of the

Define the term Agrarian Revolution. Agrarian Revolution refers to radical changes and improvements in agriculture and animal domestication. Describe the characteristics of agriculture in Western Europe before the 18th century. Agrarian revolution started with invention and use of machines from mid 18th century, when food production increased as the number of workers on the farm reduced. By the Neolithic period, agriculture had reached Europe, particularly Switzerland, Spain, Italy and Turkey, where rice and barley were mainly grown. The following were the characteristics of agriculture in Western Europe before the 18th century: Land belonged to the feudal lords, the church and the royal family. Land was rented out to peasants, who paid by their labour. Paths and cart tracks criss-crossed the land. Farmers used the Broadcasting methods of planting. Small scale farming and intercropping (growing of more than one crop on a piece of land at the same time) was practised. Farmers practised the Open Field system.                                     THE OPEN FIELD SYSTEM Describe the Open Field system as practised by farmers in Western Europe before the 18th century.  (Explain farming in Britain as practised under the Open Field system.) A piece of land was divided into three portions: one for growing corn and wheat, the second for beans, peas, barley, oats and bush wheat, while the third was left fallow to regain fertility. Sometimes, this third piece was left for grazing and homes. Each portion of land was divided into several strips, depending on the number of peasants in a village. Each peasant had his own strip, on which he was meant to cultivate just enough for the needs of his family since agriculture had not yet been commercialized. What were the disadvantages of the Open Field system of farming? (Explain the disadvantages of the traditional system of farming in Britain before the 18th century.) It did not allow efficient farming as land was not fully utilized. Division of land into small strips discouraged use of farm machinery. The existence of fallow pieces of land, cart tracks and paths that went through the unfenced fields wasted land. It was difficult to control diseases or to practise selective breeding since livestock grazed together. The broadcasting method of planting led to wastage of seeds as some were eaten by birds and rodents. Families had to travel long distances to reach their fields as pieces of land were scattered all over. Agricultural yield was low and could not meet the growing urban population‟s food demand. AGRARIAN REVOLUTION IN BRITAIN From mid 18th century onwards, scientific ideas and new techniques of farming were applied as a result of the scientific and industrial revolutions. The changes that marked the Agrarian Revolution in Britain.  (What were the characteristics of the agrarian revolution in Britain?) The land enclosure system (fencing and hedging of plots), which replaced the Open Field system in 1750. Mechanization, i.e. use of new farming methods, which required large farms as opposed to the previous small strips. Abolition of fallows. Farmers could no longer leave the land fallow to regain its fertility as was the tradition. Increase in population meant demand for more food, which required most of the land to be put to use. Introduction of crop rotation. Lord Viscount Townsend developed a four-course rotation system called the Norfolk, which consisted of barley, clover, turnips and wheat on the same plot of land over a four-year period, by which land retained or gained but would not lose its fertility. The introduction of intercropping. It was discovered that growing crops like maize and beans on a given piece of land at the same time enabled land to regain fertility, since such crops did not require the same nutrients from the soil and they grew well if planted together. Use of fertilizer. This was pioneered by Lord Viscount Townsend, who recommended manuring of land to increase yields per hectare. Use of machines. This changed agriculture from a small scale subsistence activity to a large scale business for both subsistence and commercial purposes. Selective breeding of livestock. This was invented between 1725-1795 by Robert Bakewell. Introduction and all-time availability of cattle feed, which helped ensure supply of fresh meat all the year round. The animal breeds that resulted from Robert Bakewell’s Selective Breeding technique. New improved cattle breeds like Devon, the Short-Horn, Hereford, Ayshire and Aberdeen Angus Sheep breeds such as the Leicester, Shropshire, Suffolk and Oxford. Pig breeds like Yorkshire, Berkshire and Tamworth.   The inventions/innovations that were made during Agrarian revolution in Britain. Jethro Tull’s invention of the Seed Drill and the horse-drawn hoe in 1791,, with which seeds could be sown in rows, which eased interrow cropping and kept the land between the rows clean. Introduction of the Iron plough in place of the wooden plough in 1825. Formation of the Royal Agricultural Society in 1838, which publicised new ideas and techniques of farming all over Britain. This encouraged adoption of modern methods of farming. Opening of a super phosphates factory in London in 1843 by Sir john Bennet Lawes, following the earlier discovery by scientists that Nitrogen Phosphorus (in phosphates) and Potassium (in Potash) are nutrients for all plants. Andrew Meikles’ invention of the Mechanical Thresher in 1876, which improved Patrick Bell’s earlier invention of the Mechanical Reaper, which replaced the sickle in harvesting corn. A Binder was added to the reaper so that corn was cut and bound at the same time. Other modern machines like tractors and the combined harvester could reap and thresh corn simultaneously. THE LAND ENCLOSURE SYSTEM  How the Enclosure system serve as an agricultural landmark in Britain It was necessitated by use of new farming methods that required large farms as opposed to the previous small strips. Rich farmers bought up all the land and, through the Enclosure Movement, demanded that land be enclosed by fencing. Through the Enclosure act of 1750, the British government mandated farmers to fence their land. This enabled the rich to acquire a lot more land and created large

BEGINNING OF ANIMAL DOMESTICATION Explain how animal domestication started. Identify the regions of early civilizations where animal domestication started and the animals kept there. (Name the early centres of animal domestication and the animals they first kept). Describe two types of: The earliest cattle. The camel. Identify: The animals domesticated by man. The results/benefits of domestication of animals. BEGINNING OF ANIMAL DOMESTICATION Animal domestication started about 10,000 years ago in some regions of earliest civilizations like south-west Asia, Greece, Crete, Algeria, Egypt, North Africa, Sahara, the Lake Turkana region and southern Africa. Animal domestication started before crop growing. Development of both crop growing and animal domestication were by chance. Animal domestication was gradual. While hunting and fetching water, man established close ties with, caught, took care of and bred the animals in captivity until they were tamed. Domestic animals like dogs, goats, sheep, cattle and camels were useful in various ways, e.g. provision of food and protection. The dog, which was the first animal to be domesticated, assisted in hunting, driving away dangerous wild animals and herding livestock. EARLY CENTRES OF ANIMAL DOMESTICATION Goats may first have been domesticated in south-west Asia and then Africa around 5000BC in areas such as Tell Abu Hureyra, Tepe Ali Kosh and De Luren Khuzestan in south-west Iran, Iraq, Upper Tigris valley, Turkey, southern Jordan, Egypt, Sudan and Libya, after which it spread to other parts of Asia, and to Europe. Various species of the goat developed. Ø Sheep were first domesticated at Zawi Chemi Shanid in Iraq around 9000BC and then in Syria, Egypt, the Sahara region, West Africa and the Indus and Yellow River valleys. It spread to Europe from Turkey in 7000BC. There are various breeds of sheep in the world today. Cattle were first domesticated in south-west Asia around 5800BC in such places as Catal Huyuk in Turkey, Iraq and Iran, from where it spread to Ethiopia and North Africa. They are of two types, i.e. the short horned and the long horned. The camel originated from North America, then it spread to Asia and South America. It was first domesticated in Arabia in 3000BC. It is often referred to as the “ship of the desert” as it was commonly used in arid areas. There are two types of the camel. These are: The one humped, found in the Middle East, Northern China and Africa. The two humped, found in central Asia. BENEFITS OF DOMESTIC ANIMALS Regular food supply e.g. meat and milk. Clothing, beddings and other products from animal skins. Hooves and horns, which were used as containers, communication and musical instruments. Animal bones for making tools, ornaments, needles and weapons. Camels, donkeys and horses enabled man to travel longer distances faster with heavier loads. Increased crop yields as oxen and donkeys were used for ploughing. Animals provided manure for the crop farms. Use of the dog for protection from dangerous animals. Man now led a more settled life as hunting was now limited since the animals he needed for food were at his doorstep. Man now lived in families and villages. Domestication of plants and animals occurred in the Neolithic period, although animal domestication came first.                   THE BEGINNING OF AGRICULTURE What is agriculture? Agriculture is cultivation of crops to satisfy human needs. Identify the factors that made it necessary for human beings to discover agriculture.  (Explain the factors that led to (facilitated) development of agriculture). (Increased human population, for which the natural environment could not provide adequate food. Climatic changes, which hindered pure reliance on nature for livelihood. Competition for food among and between people and animals. Calamities such as floods and bush fires, which cleared vegetation for wild animals. Describe the two theories that explain how man discovered crop growing and animal keeping. The Diffusion theory, which states that crop growing and animal keeping developed in south-west Asia and then spread to the rest of the world. That which states that agriculture must have developed independently in various parts of the world. Explain the stages in which crop growing developed.  (Explain how crop growing started/began.) Crop growing must have developed in stages as follows: Man may have accidentally selected plants he considered more nutritious and tasted better than or were superior to others. It was discovered that wild crops germinated and grew along river valleys, where water and fertile soil were ample. Crops grew faster as other plants and bushes were cut and weeded out. Farmers made and used tools to clear bush, dig and plant the seed, which was quite involving. The crops had to be harvested and then stored in the homes. Various crops adapted to diverse environmental conditions and gradually spread to other areas. Identify the early centres of agriculture in the world and the crops domesticated there. In the Fertile Crescent (south-west Asia), which comprises present-day Iraq, Turkey, Lebanon and parts of Iran and Syria, wheat and Barley were the first crops grown. In Asia and Africa, particularly the Ganges valley in India, Thailand, Malaysia, Indonesia and the Niger, diverse rice varieties were domesticated. In tropical America i.e. Central America, southern America and Mexico, yams and maize were the first crops grown. In Africa, particularly Kenya, Tanzania, Ethiopia, Algeria, West Africa and the Nile Valley in Egypt, the Guinea yam and varieties of rice, millet and sorghum were domesticated. Analyse cultivation of the crops cited in the various centres you’ve mentioned. (Explain how the crops you cited in the above-mentioned centres came to be cultivated by man.) Wheat grew wildly in different types. It was first harvested as Brittle Wheat: a type that was gradually replaced by „emmer‟ wheat, which then spread from the Mesopotamian plains by 6000BC and reached Egypt by 3000BC and to the Mediterranean region, central Asia, India and southern Europe. Barley was widely grown in Mureybat on the Euphratese in Syria from 700-600BC. It then spread to Ali Kosh in Iran, Jericho in Jordan and Fayum in Egypt. By about 2000BC, cultivation of barley

Describe the theories that explain the origin of mankind. The Creation Theory. This presents man and everything else as having been created by God. It is contained mainly in the Bible (used by Christians) and the Quran (used by Muslims). The theory further states that God gave man authority to control the earth in all ways. The Mythical (traditional) Theory. This is an attempt by individuals or communities of people to explain their origin. It is given through Oral Traditions, myths and legends. It mainly states that the first people were created by God. The Evolution Theory, which states that all living organisms resulted from a natural process of gradual and continuous change from a lower (simpler) state to a better-adapted (complex) and superior one. The Evolution Theory was advanced by Charles Darwin in 1859. Identify two illustrations/examples of the Mythical (Traditional) theory. According to the Agikuyu, God (Ngai) appeared and created their ancestors (Gikuyu and Mumbi) at Mukurwe Wa Gathanga. According to the Nandi, the first two people came from the knees of a giant man, which began to swell until they burst. A man came from one knee and a woman from the other. These became the ancestors of the Nandi-speaking people of Kenya. This is an example of myths in certain communities that do not directly refer to God‟s creation. EVOLUTION OF MAN What is evolution? Evolution is a natural process of gradual and continuous change of living organisms from a lower (simpler) state to a better-adapted (complex) and superior one. Identify four distinct stages in which evolution took place according to Charles Darwin. Mutation, natural selection, State the principles of Natural Selection. All organisms are uniquely different, based on hereditary factors each has from birth. Although many organisms are produced, few manage to develop to maturity. Only organisms that constantly adapt to the existing environment manage to grow to maturity and reproduce. For instance, the Amoeba, which may have survived only in water, changed by mutation and cast a protective shell (cyst) around its body, which enabled it to survive when the climate changed and became dry. Even after mutation, only the fittest organisms could survive as the weak became extinct due to limited resources. This theory came to be popularly known as Survival for the Fittest. As species emerging from mutation and natural selection increase in number, search for basic needs intensifies. Some few species take on a significantly different form through adaptation to the new environment as they get isolated from the rest. Darwin’s theory of evolution is supported by almost all scientists, particularly palaeontologists. It holds that human beings belong to the Animal Kingdom and that Man is a primate as are apes like gorillas, chimpanzees and monkeys, although apes belong to the family Pongidae while human beings are in the Hominidae  family. Analyse the evolution and adaptation of Man. The earliest living things appeared probably about 200 million years ago as microscopic creatures in the expansive waters that covered the earth. Gradually, the creatures evolved into bigger organisms such as fish and amphibians, equipped with special features to survive, which differentiated them from those we have today. Climatic changes About 150 million years ago led to the drying up of swamps and other water masses. Most of the early creatures perished as some others evolved into small reptiles such as dinosaurs. Mammals may have evolved from such small reptiles. Man may have evolved from such animals. He was then transformed over millions of years from a primitive form to what he is today. The first stage of man‟s evolution was the appearance of hominids that were more manlike than apelike. These became the ancestors of the human family. State two major reasons why the earliest mammals lived on trees. There was more supply of food on trees, such as insects, leaves and birds‟ eggs. They were more secure from their enemies while up on trees. Explain why Africa is the most probable cradle of mankind. African Savannas were ideal for primates. The moist, warm and varied climate supported animal and plant life. Archaeological sites were discovered in the Great Lakes region of eastern Africa and along the Great Rift Valley. This confirms that hominids were living in this region by the time the rift valley was being formed. The earliest apes and various animals may have first lived around what is now Lake Victoria and the rift valley, then some went northwards into Europe and Asia. This was because, at that time, areas along the Equator (especially central and west Africa) were covered in thick forest. Around the Great lakes of East Africa was the Savannah (grassland with scattered trees and bushes). It was in this environment that man had his first home. Ø Due to earth quakes and volcanic eruptions during the formation of the great rift valley, allot of dust was brought up, which covered places where hominids had left their weapons, tools, their own bones, and those of other animals. These became archaeological sites in east Africa. Name the archaeological sites in Kenya. Rusinga Island, Fort Ternan near Kericho, Kariandusi near Elmentaita, Gambles Cave, Olorgesailie, Koobi-For a near Lake Turkana, Hyrax Hill, Kanjiri Njoro River Cave. Name the archaeological sites in Tanzania. Garusi, Olduvai Gorge, Peninj, Apis Rock, Isimila Name the archaeological sites in Uganda. Nsongezi, Nyero, Napaka, Magosi, Paraa, Ishango, Mweya, Identify/name archaeological sites outside East Africa.    Fayum depression in Egypt. Taung in Botswana. Omo River valley in Ethiopia. The Afar depression in Ethiopia. Hadar in Ethiopia. Tenerife in Algeria. Bodo in Ethiopia. Matupi cave in Shaba province of Congo DRC. Kalambo falls in Zambia. Orangia in southern Africa. Dar Es Sultan cave in southern Africa. Apollo II caves in Orange state in South Africa. Explain how climatic and environmental changes influenced Man’s evolution. Physical features that were no longer needed in the Savannah, such as the tail, were done away with. Man became more upright in posture since he used his forelimbs in making tools, in

The meaning of History What is History? History is the study of Man‟s past chronological account and record of events in reaction to his environment. Or: It is a science concerned with past human actions, pursued by interpretation of evidence for the sake of human self-knowledge. History is closely related to prehistory.  What is Pre-History?  Prehistory are the activities in which human beings engaged before the invention of writing and drawing for storing information. Identify the sources of prehistoric information. Songs, Myths, Stories, Artefacts, Fossils, The language of a people. Into what three branches is History divided? Social History, which deals with people‟s traditions and values, enshrined in their religion, beliefs, cultural practices, dressing, taboos and literature. Political history, which deals with control systems in a society, e.g. maintenance of law and order, leadership and security. In it, famous leaders and their systems of governments are studied. Economic History, which refers to people‟s means of livelihood e.g. hunting, food gathering, trade, agriculture and communication. The meaning of government What is Government? It is the practice of ruling or exercising continuous authority over one‟s subjects. Ø It is an intermediate body set up by society to ensure equity and the execution of laws while maintaining social and political liberty. Describe the characteristics of government. Rules, which govern members to ensure that life runs smoothly for the benefit of all. Ø Sovereignty i.e. the supreme authority of the government to exercise its powers within its boundaries. Jurisdiction i.e. the geographical area within which the government exercises powers and rules. Legitimacy I.e. being acceptable to the people over who it exercises power. Ø Law enforcement i.e. ability to take action against those who break the law.  Describe three main arms of government. The Legislature (Parliament), which makes laws. The Legislature is made up of the national assembly and the President. The Executive, which is made up of the President, the Cabinet and the Civil Service. It implements laws. The Judiciary (Court system), which ensures that laws made are constitutional, are followed and those who break them are punished.  Describe four forms of Government. Here, the ruler has total power over his/her subjects. Dictators are the sole authority where they rule. They make the law and execute justice. They exercise their rule forcefully, suppressing their subjects at will. They impose their will over others and interfere with or limit the freedom of their subjects. Examples of dictatorship include Germany during the rule of Adolf Hitler, Italy under Benito Mussolini and Uganda during the rule of Idi Amin Dada. Democratic Government, whereby rulers regularly seek public mandate by popular vote, based on free and fair election and on the fact that elected officials represent the wishes and aspirations of the people. In such a government, matters of national importance stem from freedoms and rights provided for in the Constitution, which governs the law of the nation. Ø In this, a group of people from the highest social classes in a society rule over others. The queen or king is the head of government, whose senior positions are held by privileged members of the royal family, who are considered as a rear breed of people and who are considered superior to other human beings because of the wealthy family background they are born into in addition to their superior education. In this, democracy is practised, but aristocratic power is respected. In such government, Parliament is the supreme organ, but the king and the royal family are retained in power as a tradition. The King or Queen is therefore respected as head of state. Describe two categories into which Monarchical government is classified. Absolute Monarchy, whereby the head of state is dictatorial since his/her power is unrestricted. Constitutional Monarchy, whereby the power of the King or Queen is restricted, based on the provisions in the constitution. In both cases, power is inherited within the family of the royalty. What is the importance of studying History & Government? Studying History enables us to: Learn about past political developments, which inspire nationalism. Understand the origin of human beings and their various past achievements. Prepare for careers in public administration, law and teaching. Appreciate past experiences of human beings to understand the present. Increase our knowledge about past events. Understand our cultures and those of other people. Acquire a sense of identity by telling us who we are and where we came from. 2. The study of government helps us to: Understand the responsibilities and powers vested in different organs of government, such as the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary. Understand the administrative organization in our country. Learn how development projects are designed and implemented. Learn how conflicts in society are solved peacefully. Understand how the government raises revenue and the checks and balances on government expenditure. Understand the duties and responsibilities of citizens. Understand how laws are made. Learn the democratic principles that govern most countries.        SOURCES OF INFORMATION ON HISTORY & GOVERNMENT Into what three main categories are sources of information on History & Government divided? Unwritten sources, which refer to unrecorded historical information, whereby conclusions are based on available information. Written sources i.e. recorded historical information, whereby conclusions are based on document produced by making letters or any other symbols on a surface for the purpose of communication. Electronic sources i.e. information processed through devices that control and direct or operate on a small electric current, e.g. electronic calculators, computers, etc. UNWRITTEN SOURCES Describe five unwritten sources of information on History & Government. Oral Tradition, i.e. the practice of passing information from one generation to the next by word of mouth. It was mainly important in societies where the art of writing was absent. Ø Linguistics, i.e. the scientific study of languages by tracing the principles of languagechange and establishment of the current genealogical classification of a particular language. Anthropology, i.e. the study of human beings and their culture. Genetics, i.e. the scientific study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics. Archaeology, i.e. the

TOPIC 1 : INTRODUCTION TO HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT – Click to view TOPIC 2 : EARLY MAN – Click to view TOPIC 3 : DEVELOPMENT OF AGRICULTURE AND ANIMAL DOMESTICATION – Click to view TOPIC 4 : AGRARIAN REVOLUTION – Click to view TOPIC 5 : THE PEOPLES OF KENYA UPTO THE 19TH CENTURY – Click to view TOPIC 6 : CONTACTS BETWEEN THE EAST AFRICAN COAST AND THE OUTSIDE WORLD – Click to view TOPIC 7 : CITIZENSHIP – Click to view TOPIC 8 : NATIONAL INTEGRATION – Click to view

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THURSDAY: 4 August 2022. Morning paper.                                                    Time Allowed: 3 hours. The paper is made up of a hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Answer ALL questions by indicating the letter (A, B, C or D) that represents the correct answer. Each question is allocated one (1) mark. 1. Emily, a Certified Fraud Examiner, is conducting a routine interview of an employee who does not know her. Which of the following BEST describes the professional interviewing practices that Emily should use in conducting the introduction phase of the interview. A. Ask ritualist questions B. Introduce herself and avoid titles C. Establish rapport D. All the above (1 mark) 2. Which of the following statements concerning court records is most accurate? A. There are multiple databases that contain a comprehensive database of court documents from all court cases in every country B. In most countries, court records are not public records and require judicial authorisation to access C. When searching for records for a particular court case, a fraud examiner need only to search the central/federal court records as they serve as a repository for all cases heard at all court levels D. In most countries, reliable court records are best obtained from the court in where the case was heard or filed (1 mark) 3. Which of the following is a social physiological force that facilitates communication and makes the interviewee identify with a higher value beyond immediate self-interest? A. Extrinsic rewards B. Catharsis C. Altruism D. Recognition (1 mark) 4. Which of the following is a method of tracing illicit funds by comparing bank deposits with the suspect’s known legitimate income? A. Expenditures method B. Bank deposit analysis method C. Net worth analysis method D. Asset method (1 mark) 5. Which of the following is a recommended mechanic of interviewing? A. The Interviewer should avoid taking written down questions to the interview B. The interviewer should not record the interviewee without their consent C. The interviewer should accord the interviewee privacy D. All the above (1 mark) 6. Which of the following is an important element of conversation that is essential in conducting interviews but has little significance, such as “Good morning” and “How are you today?” A. Catharsis B. Ritualistic C. Expression D. Information exchange (1 mark) 7. When a fraud examiner prepares a memorandum reflecting the information furnished by a confidential source, how should the fraud examiner identify the source? A. The fraud examiner should not write confidential source information in a memorandum B. The fraud examiner should identify the source by his or her full name C. The fraud examiner should identify the source using his or her initials D. The fraud examiner should use symbols to denote the source’s identity (1 mark) 8. Which of the following statements is TRUE about seizing computers for investigation? A. When a forensic investigator is seizing a running computer for examination, he can retrieve data from the computer directly via its normal interface if the evidence needed is volatile B. When a forensic investigator is seizing a running computer, he should do a hard shut down C. When a forensic investigator is seizing a computer that is shut down, they should not open it D. All the above (1 mark) 9. When a suspect is confronted with circumstantial evidence of excess funds that the suspect cannot account for from legitimate known sources of funds, which of the following is NOT a defence that the suspect is likely to present? A. The suspect claim that the extra funds are from inheritance from his father B. The suspect claim that the extra funds are from an insurance compensation C. The suspect claim that the extra funds are gifts or rewards from the organization’s vendors and contractors D. The suspect claim that the extra funds are from his savings over a period of time (1 mark) 10. Before removing a computer system from a scene for further analysis, it is important to document the system’s setup with photographs or diagrams. A) True B) False (1 mark) 11. The intelligence level of an interview subject rarely has no effect on an investigator’s ability to accurately observe behavioral clues during an interview. A) True B) False (1 mark) 12. Circumstantial proof that would yield the best results when the suspect is using his illicit funds to accumulate wealth and acquire assets, thus causing his net worth to increase is referred to as: A. The asset method B. The expenditures method C. The income method D. Net worth analysis method (1 mark) 13. A CFO at a major company, is alleged to have committed financial statement fraud. During an admission-seeking interview with Fredrick the investigator, he states: “I know the employee’s job security depend on the company’s good performance. I am sure you did this to help the employees retain their jobs, Isn’t that right?” This interviewing technique is known as: A. Rationalisation B. Recognition C. Altruism appeals D. Benchmark Admission (1 mark) 14. Which one of the following should be done to prepare an organization for a formal fraud investigation? A. Inform the managers of the employees who will be involved in the investigation B. Inform the organization’s legal counsel when the investigation is about to commence C. Inform management that the investigation is about to begin D. All of the above (1 mark) 15. To preserve the confidentiality of a fraud investigation, management should always implement a blanket policy prohibiting employees from discussing anything related to employee investigations. A) True B) False (1 mark) 16. Which of the following is a limitation of conducting a public database search online? A. Information from online databases must be checked for accuracy and also if the data is current and up to date B. Online public records searches are limited in the area they cover, often requiring fraud examiners to search multiple

WEDNESDAY: 3 August 2022. Afternoon paper.                                       Time Allowed: 3 hours. This paper has one hundred (100) multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory. Marks allocated to each question are shown at the end of the question. Each question is allocated one (1) mark. 1. In common law countries, expert witnesses are allowed to draw conclusions and express opinions. Which of the following is NOT correct about an expert opinion testimony in a trial process? A. The expert opinion must not be prejudicial B. The expert opinion must base on specialized knowledge of the facts in issue C. The expert opinion should be able to assist the judge to determine the evidence related to the facts in issue D. The witness must have direct personal knowledge of the facts in issue. (1 mark) 2. Laura, a fraud suspect, in the civil law jurisdiction confesses to fraud. During Laura’s trial for the fraud, the prosecution introduces Laura’s confession as evidence of intent to commit fraud. What type of evidence is Laura’s confession? A. Exhibit B. Direct evidence C. Real evidence D. Hearsay evidence (1 mark) 3. Which of the following statements concerning the credibility of expert witnesses in most civil law legal systems is CORRECT? A. The judge and the parties cannot question the credibility of a court-appointed expert witness B. Both the judge and the parties may question the credibility of a court-appointed expert witness C. Only the parties may question the credibility of a court-appointed expert witness D. Only the judge may question the credibility of a court-appointed expert witness (1 mark) 4. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about the judicial treatment of privileges from foreign jurisdictions in cross-border litigation? A. There is standardization and predictability with respect to privileges in cross-border litigation B. The transnational principles and rules established a set of standardized rules of privilege for cross-border litigation C. Parties to litigation involving cross-border litigation should expect to have the privilege laws from their own jurisdiction applied when engaged in litigation abroad. D. All the above (1 mark) 5. Austine, a Certified Forensic Fraud Examiner, obtained a document at the beginning of the investigation. Since Austin obtained the document, several individuals have had it in their possession. When litigation commenced the document was introduced at trial. The chain of custody was not maintained. Which of the following would be questioned about the document? A. The authenticity of the document B. The best rule of the evidence C. The chain of custody D. The validity of the evidence (1 mark) 6. Which of the following statements concerning criminal bargaining agreements is most ACCURATE? A. Bargaining agreements are only allowed in common law jurisdictions B. Bargaining agreements are more commonly accepted in civil law jurisdictions C. Bargaining agreements are more commonly accepted in civil law jurisdictions than common law jurisdictions. D. None of the above 7. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the expert’s report or statement? A. When an expert is hired by a court or a party to litigation to testify at trial, the expert’s statement is generally protected from being disclosed to the opposing side B. The expert’s fraud investigation report is protected from disclosure to the opposing side C. The expert report can only be presented during trial D. None of the above (1 mark) 8. Which of the following is NOT one of the three stages of a criminal proceeding in an adversarial jurisdiction? A. The investigative phase B. The pre-trial phase C. The trial phase D. The sentencing phase (1 mark) 9. Which of the following statement is TRUE in regard to expert witness and the trial process in the common law jurisdiction? A. The examination in chief phase of the trial process is, the best phase for the prosecution expert witness to establish the facts of the case with the court B. The expert witness must be aware of the cross-examination counsel’s techniques, that may make the expert witness support the defence side C. The cross-examination counsel will usually not ask open ended question but rather leading questions D. All the above (1 mark) 10. Which of the following statements is NOT true about adversarial jurisdictions and inquisitorial jurisdictions in relation to direct and cross-examinations? A. Both the adversarial and inquisitorial feature direct examination B. Both the adversarial and inquisitorial feature cross-examination C. Inquisitorial jurisdictions do not feature cross-examination D. All the above (1 mark) 11. In adversarial jurisdictions, which of the following parties may access the full evidentiary record prior to the trial phase of criminal proceedings? A. The judge and the prosecution only B. The prosecution only C. Both the prosecution and the defense D. None of the above (1 mark) 12. Daisy is being prosecuted in a common law system using adversarial processes for corruption and bribery. In defence of the charges, Daisy claims that she is a person of high integrity and therefore could not have committed the crime. The prosecution wants to show evidence of Daisy’s previous convictions for corruption to prove that she does not have integrity as claimed. Could the court allow the prosecution to introduce the evidence of Daisy’s previous convictions. Which of the following statement is CORRECT in regard to the admissibility of the evidence? A. Daisy’s prior convictions are inadmissible because her character evidence is not reliable to prove the facts in issue. B. Daisy’s prior convictions are inadmissible because her character evidence is not relevant to the facts in issue. C. Daisy’s prior convictions evidence are inadmissible for conviction but can be used to determine sentencing D. All the above (1 mark) 13. Which of the following statement is ACCURATE in regard to expert testimony in judicial proceedings? A. Provide evidence lay testimony based on personal knowledge and perceptions of the facts in issue B. Assist in providing and establishing one essential circumstance among many others C.

LAW RELATED TO FRAUD – Click to view PRINCIPLES OF LAW OF EVIDENCE AND THE TRIAL PROCESS – Click to view PLANNING AND CONDUCTING FORMAL INVESTIGATIONS – Click to view

WEDNESDAY:  3 August 2022. Morning paper.                                                                                  Time Allowed: 3 hours. This paper is made of one hundred (100) Multiple Choice Questions. Answer ALL questions by indicating the letter (A, B, C or D) that represents the correct answer. Each question is allocated one (1) mark. 1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT in regard to the Bribery Act 2016? A. The Bribery Act, 2016 came into force on 13 January 2017 with the object of providing a framework for the prevention, investigation, and punishment of bribery and related offenses                                                                      B. The Bribery Act comes in the wake of changes and new appointments to the Ethics and Anti- Corruption Commission (EACC) in an initiative to combat corruption in all sectors of the country’s economy C. The Act applies to individuals and entities in both private and public sectors D. All the above (1 mark) 2. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate in relation to the fight against corruption? A. Before the Bribery Act 2016 the law did not impose significant responsibilities on the private sector in the fight against corruption B. The Bribery Act 2016 imposes express duties on private entities and individuals the duty to prevent and report incidents of bribery C. The Bribery Act 2016 does not have extra-territorial application in relation to bribery-related offenses carried outside Kenya D. The Bribery Act 2016 has made it a requirement for private entities to have in place procedures for the prevention of bribery (1 mark) 3. The anti-bribery provisions criminalize which one of the following acts? A. A company promises to pay a foreign official Sh.10,000,000 to win a contract B. A company transfers Sh.10,000,000 to a foreign official to influence the official to award it a public construction contract C. A company that is trading securities on the securities exchange transfers Sh.10,000,000 to a foreign official to influence the official to award it a public construction contract D. All of the above (1 mark) 4. The Tax legislation criminalizes which one of the following fraudulent activities? A. Any person who, in relation to a tax period, knowingly omits from his or her return any amount which should have been included B. Any person who, in relation to a tax period, knowingly claims any relief or refund to which he or she is not entitled C. Any person who, in relation to a tax period, knowingly prepares false books of account or other records relating to that other person or falsifies any such books of account or other records D. All the above (1 mark) 5. Which of the following statements is NOT correct in regard to false or misleading statements under the Tax legislation? A. A person commits an offence when the person deliberately makes a statement to an authorised officer that is false or misleading in a material particular B. A person commits an offence when the person unintentionally omits from a statement made to an authorised officer any matter or thing without which the statement would be false or misleading in a material particular C. A person commits an offence when the person deliberately omits from a statement made to an authorised officer any matter or thing without which the statement would be false or misleading in a material particular D. All the above (1 mark) 6. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate in regard to Jurisdiction to try tax cases? A. Despite any other written law, a person charged with the commission of an offense under a tax law may be prosecuted in any place in Kenya in which the person may be in custody for the offence B. Despite any other written law, an offence under this Act may be tried in the court designated to try offences of corruption or economic crimes C. Despite any other written law, an offence under this Act may be tried in the high court of Kenya designated to try offences of corruption or economic crimes D. All the above are correct (1 mark) 7. Under the Anti-corruption and Economic Crimes Act, which of the following statements is ACCURATE A. Misappropriation of public funds is defined as an economic crime B. Failure to protect public property and revenue is defined as a corruption offense C. Fraud and embezzlement are defined as economic crimes D. None of them is accurate (1 mark) 8. Bett has no tax returns experience, he completed tax documents for his new business. The information required was complex and therefore the returns were improperly completed. The act was unintentional. Which of the following statements is MOST ACCURATE? A. Bett will only be liable for criminal penalties if the government suffered loss B. Bett will be liable for criminal penalties if he intentionally completed the documents improperly C. Bett will be liable for criminal penalties whether he intentionally or unintentional completed the documents improperly D. All the above are correct (1 mark) 9. Which one of the following statements related to criminal activities intended to enable bribery is MOST ACCURATE? A. Any person who knowingly assists a person or a private entity to give or receive a bribe by obtaining property intended for use in bribery B. Any person who knowingly assists a person or a private entity to give or receive a bribe by obtaining property intended for use in bribery by using, having possession of or transferring as a result or connection with bribery C. Any person who knowingly assists a person or a private entity to give or receive a bribe by recording property which was obtained as a result of or in connection with bribery D. All the above (1 mark) 10. Which of the following statements under the Bribery Act 2016 is NOT accurate? A. Under the Bribery Act, only private entities are